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the combined molecular kinetic energies of molecules in a very large container of cold water are greater than the combined molecular KE's in a cup of hot tea.pretend you partially immerse the teacup in the cold water and that the tea aborbs 10J of energy from the water and becomes hotter,while the water that gives up 10J of energy becomes cooler.would this energy transfer violate the 1st law of thermodynamics?the 2nd law of thermodynamics?explain

2007-01-08 10:15:39 · 3 answers · asked by kobay 2 in Education & Reference Homework Help

3 answers

Ive taken physics and thermodynamics among other things. Im going to try to explain the answer using physics thermo:

1st Law of Thermodynamics: Matter is neither created nor destroyed, it merely changes form.

- this problem does not violate this law theoretically because the cyclic process suggests that energy leaves one part of the system and enters the other part of the system; respectively cooling the former and increasing the temperature in the latter.

2nd Law of Thermodynamics- Basically, the grandient of energy travels from a greater state to a lower state.

-Yes, this law is violated because even though there is more cold water, the question states that the tea cup is partially submerged in the cold water so that the tea and the water and not touching the flow of energies will not be flowing from the cold to the hot rather the inverse of this. because the hot tea contains more energy, the transfer of energy in this combined system will flow from the tea cup to the surrounding colder water.

(http://www.uwsp.edu/cnr/wcee/keep/Mod1/Unitall/definitions.htm) part 3:
Second Law of Thermodynamics - 1. Each time energy is converted from one form to another, some of the energy is always degraded to a lower-quality, more dispersed, less useful form. 2. No system can convert energy from one form to another useful for with 100 percent efficiency. 3. Energy cannot be spontaneously transferred from a cold body to a hot body. 4. The entropy of a system increases over time.

2007-01-08 10:30:16 · answer #1 · answered by The_Amish 5 · 0 0

The only thing it violates is likelihood of it happening! Seriously, there could be a huge range of individual kinetic energies in the cold water molecules and some of those could be high enough to actually transfer energy to the hot cup of tea. It is exceedingly unlikely but certainly not impossible. So what you present could happen, but no one should expect it too. Better be ready to jerk that cup back out soon as you notice it did happen because it's likely going to "unhappen" pretty quickly.

No laws violated.

Of course, the likelier event is the teacup molecules losing energy to the colder water molecules. But then, there's no question to ask I suppose.

One has to remember, it is the energy of the individual molecules that matters, not the whole. But since temperature is a measure of their energy and they have no reason not to have more or less equalized, one just wouldn't expect things to happen this way. But they still can because nothing in the problem stated prevents a batch of molecules local to the teacup being hot enough to put energy in rather than sucking it out.

2007-01-08 10:33:18 · answer #2 · answered by roynburton 5 · 0 0

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2016-12-12 07:14:07 · answer #3 · answered by goslin 4 · 0 0

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