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give an example with the answer plz

2007-01-08 08:40:07 · 9 answers · asked by bluedragon9081 1 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

9 answers

1. Take the second fraction and find its reciprocal (1/3 becomes 3/1).

2. Multiply the first fraction by the reciprocal you just found.

3. Simplify.

(2/7) / (6/4) step 1
(2/7) * (4/6) step 2
8/42 = 4/21 step 3

2007-01-08 08:43:09 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

For dividing fractions, you first make both fractions improper. So 3 and 1/2 would be 7/2. Then u multiply the first number by the recipricol of the second number ( basically make the numerator the denomanator and the denomanator the numerator).

3 1/2 divided by 3/4
7/2 divided by 3/4
7/2 * 4/3 =
28/6 which is simplified to 4 and 4/6 or 4 and 2/3.

2007-01-08 08:45:56 · answer #2 · answered by TheSeventhX 2 · 0 0

To divide by any rational number, multiply by the inverse of the number.

e.g., to divide 10 by 1/2, multiply 10 by 2/1
(2/1 = 2).

to divide 10 by 5, multiply 10 by 1/5
(any integer can be written over 1, because dividing by 1 does not change the value; therefore 5 = 5/1 and the inverse of 5/1 is 1/5).

to divide a fraction by a fraction works the same way:

to divide 7/9 by 1/3, multiply 7/9 by 3/1

to divide 17/2 by 3/4, multiply 17/2 by 4/3

example:

(17/2) / (3/4) = (17/2) * (4/3) = (17*4) / (2*3) = 68/6

which can be simplified to 34/3 = 11 and 1/3

2007-01-08 08:51:56 · answer #3 · answered by Raymond 7 · 0 0

keep the first fraction the way it is
flip the 2nd
multiply
~
5/6 divided by 6/4

5/6 times 4/6 = 20/36
or simplify it =]

2007-01-08 08:48:19 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

I always convert the fraction into a decimal; I'm not sure how to do it without doing so.
Example:
1/2 / 1/3
0.5 / 0.33 =1.5

2007-01-08 08:44:04 · answer #5 · answered by bunni96 4 · 0 0

u just take the last fraction and flip it around like
- ::: that means division
1/1 - 1/3
and then u just got like 1/1-3/1
so its 3 over 1 no 1 over 3

2007-01-08 08:44:04 · answer #6 · answered by NoHairSeXy 1 · 0 0

Multiply by the inverse of the second

A/C ÷ B/D = A/C * D/B = AD / BC

2007-01-08 08:43:37 · answer #7 · answered by bequalming 5 · 1 0

Yeah. It's called petty cash.

2007-01-08 08:42:34 · answer #8 · answered by vanamont7 7 · 0 1

kir

2013-12-11 11:28:09 · answer #9 · answered by LaTonya 1 · 0 0

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