2007-01-08 06:21:41 · 9 answers · asked by hokie fan 1 in Sports ➔ Football (American)
Because the first down marker was inside the 1yrd line and he was obvously down behind the 2 yrd marker. I watched for it on replay because I thought the same thing.
2007-01-08 06:53:46 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
The officials upstairs did review it and no he didn't. I thought at first maybe he did but after seeing the reply it was clear that when his knee hit the grround he was a good 1/2 to 3/4 yards short of the 1st down.
2007-01-08 06:36:21 · answer #2 · answered by ndmagicman 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The Refs were pissed because the Cowboys didn't pay them enough to throw the game like they did through the '70's, '80's, and '90's...
2007-01-08 06:29:03 · answer #3 · answered by ? 3 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Because it was pretty obvious that he didn't. I wondered the same thing until I saw the replay (which showed that he was well short).
2007-01-08 06:29:39 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Because it's wasn't close enough to require one!
2007-01-08 06:57:19 · answer #5 · answered by SteelerFan_2006_ 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It wouldn't have mattered, because he fumbled the ball, anyway.
2007-01-08 06:29:45 · answer #6 · answered by ? 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I don't know. It looked like he was real close, it damn sure deserved a replay.
2007-01-08 06:24:54 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 2⤋
Because it was plain as day that he didn't.
2007-01-08 06:24:19 · answer #8 · answered by artrickwo 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
He was not close. Really.
2007-01-08 06:29:59 · answer #9 · answered by RJ 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋