Christains ask bahais where Baha'u'llah's (Glory of God) name is written in the bible since he claims to be a fullfillment of the Promised One to appear at the last days. They also ask of Muhammad's name since muslems claim that the Gospel made mention of his coming. Jews will also love Christains to show them the name Jesus Christ in the Torah since they say that he fufilled all the prophecies. Why did Jesus not go by Emmanuel that was promised to them. Why did John the baptist not go by Elisha or Elijah?
2007-01-08 04:28:35 · 11 answers · asked by Anonymous in Arts & Humanities ➔ Philosophy
No
2007-01-08 04:31:27 · answer #1 · answered by Dane 6 · 1⤊ 1⤋
the first 5 books of the bible are literally not the Torah. they're referred to as the Pentateuch. The Torah is what Christians call the former testomony. Jews and Christians believe contained in the former testomony as being the comprehend God. the position Jews and Christians variety is of their perception in Christ. Jews believe the messiah is yet to come back. the first Christians were, for this reason Jews who believed Jesus become the Christ.
2016-12-28 09:47:19 · answer #2 · answered by ? 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No, it does not. In fact Jesus fulfilled exactly none of the requirements for the messiah according to Judaism.
He did not create world peace
The Jews did not all gather in Israel
He did not ride into Jerusalem on a white donkey and rebuild the temple
The Messiah is supposed to be of the tribe of Yehudah, and since Jesus' father is supposedly God, he does not fullfill that requirement either.
There is no reference to a virgin birth anywhere in the Torah - the term used means "young woman" not "virgin"
The Messiah is only supposed to come once- regardless of whether he fullfills all of the prophecies or not.
The Messiah isn't supposed to have any special powers, and isn't even a prophet, so the miracles demonstrated by Jesus are not evidence of him being the Jewish messiah
2007-01-08 04:43:03 · answer #3 · answered by Skysong 3 · 2⤊ 1⤋
"Christ is the English form of the Greek word Χριστός (Christós), which means literally The Anointed One. The word was originally used to translate the Hebrew word (Mašíaḥ), that is Messiah.
The word is often misunderstood as the surname of Jesus due to the numerous mentions of Jesus Christ in the Christian Bible. The word is in fact a title, hence its common reciprocal use Christ Jesus, meaning The Anointed One, Jesus. Followers of Jesus became known as Christians because they believed that Jesus was the Christ, or Messiah, prophesied about in the Tanakh (the Christian Old Testament). "
2007-01-08 04:38:26 · answer #4 · answered by Mr.Robot 5 · 2⤊ 2⤋
Nope the reference is only to the "Messiah or Annointed one." The term "The Christ" is given to Jesus of Nazereth as being the fullfilment of that prophecy!
2007-01-08 05:16:13 · answer #5 · answered by ? 4 · 1⤊ 1⤋
Jesus wasn't. I beleive Christ was. As far as the Emmanuel thing. That just means "God with us". They weren't saying that would be his name. The name Jesus was first mentioned in the New Testament.
2007-01-08 04:38:55 · answer #6 · answered by tuxgal3 5 · 3⤊ 1⤋
NO, his NAME was YESHUA ( yay-shoo-ah), if he ever really was. Jesus is Greek, of PAGAN origins
2007-01-08 05:41:41 · answer #7 · answered by chin 6 · 1⤊ 1⤋
No it does not appear as such, but Messiah, which is translated to Christ does.
2007-01-08 04:36:02 · answer #8 · answered by M 6 · 1⤊ 3⤋
closest the Old Testament comes is "suffering servant"
2007-01-08 08:22:29 · answer #9 · answered by Marmalade P. Vestibule III 2 · 1⤊ 2⤋
Of course not.
2007-01-08 14:41:42 · answer #10 · answered by mo mosh 6 · 1⤊ 1⤋