2007-01-07 17:31:31 · 3 answers · asked by david68556 1 in Politics & Government ➔ Law & Ethics
Anything that has enough power behind it can restrict if so be the case. A law is only as strong as the people behind it. If some people want to use that law for some reason and another group of people didn't and in any extreme manage to convince the other group of its will in the matter.
2007-01-07 17:43:31 · answer #1 · answered by JORGE N 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Not sure if any English Law, archaic or modern, can in any way be restricted, esp. in their interpretation by a court.
Take the case of a law which exists in the city of Chester. It allows for any Englishman to shoot dead with a longbow any Welshman.
Such laws, if they still exist on the Statute Book, not only need to be restricted but also repealed.
2007-01-07 19:57:54 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
It would be very difficult to invoke one. It would be very easy to show that there is a presedence for it not being used.
2007-01-07 17:44:56 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋