It is the end of Christmas vacation and I can't remember how to do this one problem for my calculus class and it is really bothering me. I uploaded it to imageshack because I can't type it in here.
http://img180.imageshack.us/img180/6061/mathproblemui9.jpg
I know that it is a relatively easy problem but I keep getting the wrong answer. It is multiple choice but I still need to show work. Thanks to anyone who can answer this!
2007-01-07 13:20:27 · 2 answers · asked by gctoinfinity 1 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
Take out the 2. Then you have
2*∫ 1/√1-x² dx from 0 to 1/2.
This is equal to 2*arcsin x from 0 to 1/2.
So the answer is 2 *π/6 = π/3.
2007-01-07 14:00:28 · answer #1 · answered by steiner1745 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
b. pi/3
the integral is equivalent to 2*arcsin(x)
2007-01-07 21:25:53 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋