2007-01-07 09:03:08 · 6 answers · asked by Ashley F 3 in Politics & Government ➔ Law & Ethics
probably, as long as it is clear that both parties understood what was meant.
2007-01-07 09:06:13 · answer #1 · answered by Jessica 4 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Probably. Minor typographical errors that don't change the meaning of the wording of the contract shouldn't affect the enforceability of it. And if the party whose name was misspelled signed the contract and there was no contest over the validity of the signature there should be little question that it was valid.
2007-01-07 17:15:23 · answer #2 · answered by Bostonian In MO 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
If the intent was obvious, and the parties otherwise clearly defined, then this won't of itself invalidate the contract. If you put David Smith, and his official name is Dave Smith, but you include a correct address, then the intention is obvious, and the contract would stand.
It is more difficult if a completely different name is used - Denny Smith instead of David Smith for example. Then it would be difficult to argue this was simply an oversight.
2007-01-07 17:07:09 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes it is and it can easily be corrected by filing for a scrivener's error. IT is legal and binding though.
2007-01-07 18:01:33 · answer #4 · answered by Starla_C 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
If the other person signed it, then I think yes.
2007-01-07 17:06:40 · answer #5 · answered by takeashot30 4 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Probably......
sounds like you need a loophole.....get a lawyer.
2007-01-07 17:17:16 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋