2007-01-07 07:08:35 · 7 answers · asked by kmvh 1 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
n is the exponent
2007-01-07 07:12:42 · update #1
0.. Anything to the power 0 is 1 =)
2007-01-07 07:14:12 · answer #1 · answered by teekshi33 4 · 1⤊ 0⤋
2
2007-01-07 07:15:32 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
2
2007-01-07 07:12:02 · answer #3 · answered by megansa0811 2 · 0⤊ 1⤋
n = 2 because 1/2 x 2/1 = 1
2007-01-07 07:12:12 · answer #4 · answered by bijal 2 · 0⤊ 1⤋
If n is beneficial, 2n + a million ought to be the hypotenuse because of the fact it would effect interior the longest part: n^2 + (2n - a million)^2 = (2n + a million)^2 by the Pythagorean theorem. strengthen it out: n^2 + 4n^2 - 4n + a million = 4n^2 + 4n + a million perform a little algebraic rearranging: n^2 - 8n = 0 ingredient: n(n - 8) = 0 n = 0 or n = 8 n can't be 0 or you does not have a part, so n = 8. 2n + a million (the hypotenuse) = 2 * 8 + a million = 17 D
2016-12-16 04:06:34 · answer #5 · answered by phylys 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
n = 2.
see:
(n/2) = 1
2(n/2) = 2(1)
n = 2
2007-01-07 07:13:20 · answer #6 · answered by residentgrey 1 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Zero.
a fundamental rule says that n^0=1
(given that n≠0)
For your information, the additional details said n was the exponent.
2007-01-07 07:21:27 · answer #7 · answered by _anonymous_ 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋