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India was ruled by the East India Company (a British company, despite the name) and then by the British government, for a total of 200 years. In addition to raping and killing Indian women and children, the British government forced the people of India to learn English.

At the time of the historic Battle of Plassey (June 23, 1757), which began British rule in India, the US was still about 19 years away from the Declaration of Independence. The US, in 1757 was under British rule. The people of the US (in the parts under British rule), were expected tho speak British English. And, since the British government banned the import of all except British goods into India, until August 15, 1947, the US had no interest in India, either commercially or politically.

Therefore, the people of India speak/write British English. But it is not only India -- the residents of all other countries that were once under British rule (including Canada, Australia, parts of Africa, etc). all continue to speak/write British English rather than US English. Besides US English has taken most of its rules from British English, anyway.

2007-01-07 01:53:06 · answer #1 · answered by Anpadh 6 · 2 0

Because before the independence, India was under the British rule!

2007-01-07 11:29:21 · answer #2 · answered by abnatra 2 · 1 0

Because they were occupied by the British, not the Americans.

2007-01-07 09:40:17 · answer #3 · answered by kate 7 · 2 0

Because India was formerly under the British colonies.

2007-01-07 09:40:24 · answer #4 · answered by ? 7 · 2 0

Because that is what we know...

Had we knew American english we would have been using that..

SIMPLE......NO..????

2007-01-07 10:17:00 · answer #5 · answered by pathik 3 · 0 0

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