English Deutsch Français Italiano Español Português 繁體中文 Bahasa Indonesia Tiếng Việt ภาษาไทย
All categories

4 answers

The Constitution doesn't really address the idea of whether or not states can secede. It also didn't address specifically who should decide whether laws were constitutional or not. Thomas Jefferson made the argument that it was states who had the right to decide constitutionality and by extention had the right to secede. In 1789, Jefferson and others took issue with the Alien and Sedition Acts that had been passed by Congres and signed by then-President John Adams. Jefferson and his followers wrote the Virginia & Kentucky Resolutions which claimed that it was the states who could decide constitutionality and also declared that the Alien & Sedition Acts were unconstitutional. Jefferson's articles were picked up by others again and again up through the Civil War to justify secession.

2007-01-06 09:17:11 · answer #1 · answered by medievalamy 1 · 0 0

Probably because The Constitution doesn't explicitly address the issue of secession.

One the one hand, The Constitution grants explicit rights to the citizenry as well as unspecified "natural" rights. On the other hand, the rights of the state (both the Federal government and the several states) are much more restricted and are largely withheld unless explicitly granted. This vests the majority of the power in the hands of the people, which is as it should be.

2007-01-06 08:45:41 · answer #2 · answered by Bostonian In MO 7 · 0 0

In natural philosophy, a common people cannot remain separated. There are too many bonds of "natural" relationship. This is the basis for the arguement. It is being used in many cases today.

2007-01-06 09:48:02 · answer #3 · answered by Sophist 7 · 0 0

yep just Nebraska and Utah u really have to have a high grade av tho

2007-01-06 08:43:06 · answer #4 · answered by Jerry P 1 · 0 0

fedest.com, questions and answers