It's for a Uni assignment and I'm not getting anywhere. I need to write about Caxton's choice of vocab in comparison to Malory's. (Malory's was the original version - called the Winchester text - and Caxton based his version on Malory's one). Why does Caxton change Malory's vocab? What effect does this have on the general text? Why is C's version shorter?, etc. Any help would be appreciated!
2007-01-06 02:25:17 · 2 answers · asked by Mrs. Miller 3 in Education & Reference ➔ Higher Education (University +)
In response to rutrachi, Caxton DOES change some of the vocabulary in his version - that's what I'm supposed to be looking at for this assignment. For instance, in one of the passages, Malory writes 'sate sorrowing' and Caxton writes 'made suche lamentations', Malory writes 'asked', Caxton writes 'demaunded' - there are plenty more examples.
2007-01-13 20:45:24 · update #1
Hopefully omeone can give you a fuller answer but from memory Caxton's version was little more than an edit of Malory's.
It's shorter because he had nothing of note to add, and the language change would be down to an attempt to update an ever changing language. Also look into the politics of the time's because as those subtly change so does how people wanted these texts produced and what angle they wanted to draw from it.
2007-01-06 02:48:56 · answer #1 · answered by ein 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I can only retort Caxton did not have a great variation of vocabulary to Sir Thomas Malory so what evidence have you to suggest that and reinforce it>>.Caxton did revise his le Morte d'Arthur but thats all the connection i can suggest 400 years on
2007-01-13 16:10:23 · answer #2 · answered by srracvuee 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋