To what extent did the Poor Law system established in 1598/1601 provide a solution to the problem of poverty i

Question

i have an exam on this question and am very confused as to what direction to take it in. Please help xxx

Answer 1

Previously relief for the poor was given on a voluntary basis, normally by monastaries. The dissolution of the monastery's brough this to an end and the first poor law (1598) was a very brave move to oblige parishes to look after their own poor. The 1601 act made this more or less compulsory and led to the concept of a 'workhouse' where those without work, or the ability to find work, would work for their keep. also the infirm would live their as well. money was raised by a 'poor rate' tax on tennants (but not landowners!!!), and in some way you could call it the start of the modern welfare state.

also, in view of the politics of the time, it's very interesting that a socially aware law was passed at all.

did it provide a solution? to a certain extent. obviously an option was better than no option, but as with all other such things it was open to abuse. firstly it was the poor supporting the poor, the rich getting off scot free. that wasn't enough for landowners who didn't want workhouses near their property (nimby's for the middle ages) and an act was passed (I believe called the settlement act around 1662) meant that landowners could refuse to allow new tennants who they thought might be a strain at some point; in usage it meant that rich landowners had even more power over who lived where. and this ability created more poverty.

so for me, it was a glorious idea that was more or less doomed from the off.

Answer 2

I assume this is in England? My degree is scottish history hun. I'm sorry I can't help you :-(