I think it is very unfair that a man divide his property with his wife after divorce and vice versa. But if these properties were got after the marriage, the situation is completely different and the man or woman should divide what they have. Unfortunately the law can’t distinguish between these two. Especially about the marriages that one of the spouses pretends to love, but they love the spouse’s money and property.
I have a question,
Can the spouses (no difference, man and woman) have a written agreement in a court or somewhere like that and sign that agreement that not to divide or share the property or money they own before marriage?
Do you know about the law of the United States of America about this issue?
Thank you.
2007-01-05 23:50:02 · 6 answers · asked by Anonymous in Family & Relationships ➔ Marriage & Divorce
Should have thought of that BEFORE marriage and got a prenup. Once you became married all YOUR stuff became marital property...fair?? maybe not but... If you can get your now wife to sign paperwork saying she doesn't want your 401 or the house or blah blah then yes. I didn't take anything from my husband and he gave me the house free and clear. We kept our own investments and just had to take each others name off as beneficiary. Depends on how amlicable your split is and how much your soon to be ex wants her share.
2007-01-06 00:11:46 · answer #1 · answered by T C 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
A prenuptual agreement would save all that problem, however if you are splitting up amicably, then yes you can actually write the seperation or non seperation of money and property into the divorce decree. You can determine who gets what, and who doesn't--it will all take some comprimise and communication, but it can be done through the courts. You may have to do a little schmoozing to get the other to agree that what you brought into the marriage isn't up for grabs on either end, but it may be worth it in the end. If you have reciepts, bank statements etc that are computer DATED then you could always petition the court that the real property and money was yours prior to the marriage also. Do your homework and consult an attorney--they should be able to help.
2007-01-06 00:26:07 · answer #2 · answered by Austins Mom 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
nicely i'm not an lawyer yet.... you may get a prenumptial settlement drawn up that each and each and every of you signal previously the marriage which will declare what you'd be entitled to if the marriage would fail. also, in case you do not have that settlement in position and do you would possibly want to locate you self in divorce courtroom you may bypass through mediation and take a check out to agree mutually with your quickly to be x-significant different as to who receives what property. L.
2016-10-16 23:50:18 · answer #3 · answered by sherie 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
A "Pre-nuptial agreement" would have taken care of this. After the fact...it''s to late. A recourse, try and sell everything you can without her/him finding out, then run like heck and hope she/he doesn't catch you. Alaska is good this time of year.
2007-01-06 00:18:34 · answer #4 · answered by cowboydoc 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
You want a prenuptial agreement this agreement when signed by both parties states what each person gets if they divorce.
2007-01-06 00:36:07 · answer #5 · answered by fortyninertu 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It's called a pre-nup.
2007-01-06 00:16:47 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋