I think it is very unfair that a man divide his property with his wife after divorce and vice versa. But if these properties were got after the marriage, the situation is completely different and the man or woman should divide what they have. Unfortunately the law can’t distinguish between these two. Especially about the marriages that one of the spouses pretends to love, but they love the spouse’s money and property.
I have a question,
Can the spouses (no difference, man and woman) have a written agreement in a court or somewhere like that and sign that agreement that not to divide or share the property or money they own before marriage?
Do you know about the law of the United States of America about this issue?
Thank you.
2007-01-05
23:47:57
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5 answers
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asked by
Anonymous
in
Family & Relationships
➔ Marriage & Divorce