I don't know if they are born that way. I think that there is evudence that they are 'made that way'. Homosexuals and others have taken offense to your comparison, but I think that you pose a valid question.
I would bet that you would find that some are 'born' that way, and some are not. I think that you might find that Gays are the same. I dewfinitely think that there are some that are and some that are not born that way. And I do not think that it is necessarily from DNA either. It could be from other factors that a child is born 'different' where DNA is actually indirectly responsible, or not responsile at all. For Gays or pedophiles.
2007-01-05 23:34:30
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answer #1
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answered by Christian Sinner 7
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Yes. Wait- what are you talking about? What gay rights are you talking about? I personally don't believe there is such a thing as gay rights- there are individual human rights which everyone deserves, which includes marriage to the consenting adult partner of your choice (your same sex or not), the right to life, liberty, and property, and many other crucial rights, but not the right to merely do whatever they please just because they have inborn desires. Pedophiles are held to the exact same standards.
If you're arguing that since gays are born gay and should be able to love whomever they want, pedophiles born that way should be able to be with children, the answer is an emphatic "No". Simply being born one way does not entitle one to do whatever they please. That would be like saying 'If axe murderers are born that way should they enjoy the right to slaughter people?". Children are considered unable to make proper decisions for themselves, or too vulnerable to unfair influence, and thus their consent may not be real and true, which makes all adult-child relationships a form of rape, which is morally wrong and illegal. A pedophile may or may not be born with such desires, but either way- pedophilia is not an act which should be performed, no matter where the desire comes from. Being an innate characteristic that one can't help doesn't pardon it from being a morally inexcusable crime to commit.
2007-01-05 23:03:44
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answer #2
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answered by Anonymous
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Of course they should, because we gays only want the rights that everyone else has. We're not asking for special rights.
We want to be able to have relationships *with other consenting adults* without having to worry about being fired, shunned, or verbally or physically attacked because of it. We want the option of getting married to the one we love so we can have families and grow old together.
There is no way that granting social sanction and legal recognition to same-sex partnerships (i.e., marriage equality) is going to somehow legitimize pedophilia. There is no "slippery slope" here. The very idea is absurd, and the "logic" people use to make this argument is completely divorced from reality.
No one has the right to have sex with a child, regardless of whether there is a biological basis for their sexual attraction to children. Why not? Because it's harmful to the child and to the rest of society. This is common sense.
Gay people and our relationships do not harm children, society, or anyone else. But the way some people react to us, you'd think we drank babies' blood or something.
2007-01-05 23:18:15
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answer #3
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answered by Anonymous
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Assuming you mean a "sexually active" pedophile, absolutely not!
Considering 99% of pedophiles are straight men....many married, you should re-write your question as pertaining to straight men.
Pedophiles may be born the way they are, but it doesn't make it OK to take advantage of children. Kids don't have a say-so.
Adult gay people do. Get a clue.
2007-01-05 23:03:16
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answer #4
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answered by Anonymous
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I don't think so.
Most gay people have sex with people that are willingly participating.
On the other hand:you would grant pedophiles the right to do what they do?
Did you ever think of the damages they leave behind?
you are obviously a frustrated bigot.
Get that hollow space in your head examined.
Rob.
2007-01-05 22:43:42
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answer #5
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answered by Anonymous
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pedophiles arent born that way. neither are gays. but anyway can you explain to me what "turns" a pedophile on when they were younger?
2007-01-06 00:56:06
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answer #6
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answered by deadguysdontcry 2
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obviously not. gays do not harm people. They just have feelings towards one of their own kind..where as pedophiles actualli abuse the innocence of a child. You have got no idea what the hell you are talking about.
2007-01-05 23:03:37
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answer #7
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answered by Anonymous
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Whether or not pedophilia is something a person is born with or not is something debatable.
But, assuming it is, a person can not enjoy a right at the expensive of another.This is fundamentally wrong and criminal and unhealthy and non consensual and aggravated.
So your comparison is flawed and has no merit whatsoever.
2007-01-05 22:40:00
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answer #8
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answered by BuckFush 5
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Oh yeah, this is a new one. Comparing homosexuals to pedophiles, as if this hasn't been done before. And the funny thing is, not one of you has the common sense or logical thought to see the fallacy of that analogy.
Homosexuality = 2 consenting adults
Pedophilia = 1 consenting adult, 1 impressionable child.
Noticing a difference cupcake?
2007-01-05 22:33:51
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answer #9
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answered by Jaded 5
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There is a big difference between two people that are in love and have the mental state of mind to be able to know what they are feeling as opposed to one person looking to steal the right of innocence away from a naiive child.
2007-01-05 22:35:16
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answer #10
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answered by Anonymous
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