2007-01-05 14:25:39 · 15 answers · asked by devastate110 1 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
relatively
if 1 equals 1 and 2 equals 2
then yes
2007-01-05 16:03:52 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 0⤋
Yes. 1+1=2 is true.
2007-01-05 22:40:38 · answer #2 · answered by yupchagee 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It is true by definition. First you define 0 and 1, so that 0 + 0 = 0 and 1 + 0 = 0 + 1 = 1. Then you need to define what 1 + 1 is equal to. It is defined as 2.
2007-01-05 22:57:46 · answer #3 · answered by bob the matrix 2 · 2⤊ 0⤋
Not in Base 2 it would then be 10
2007-01-06 00:39:57 · answer #4 · answered by ebiz1@sbcglobal.net 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
In the decimal system,
1+1 = 2
But not in binary. Here it'll be 1+1 = 10
2007-01-05 22:52:37 · answer #5 · answered by The Alchemist 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
If you're a computer nerd, no. Binary code 1+1=0
2007-01-05 22:29:13 · answer #6 · answered by ? 5 · 2⤊ 0⤋
if you do it under normal digital mode then it's true that 1+1=2 but if under binary mode then it is false answer cuz in binary 1+1=10 ...thank you
2007-01-05 22:41:04 · answer #7 · answered by Wing 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
There are 10 kinds of people in the world. Those who know binary, and those who don't.
2007-01-05 22:33:32 · answer #8 · answered by ? 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Yes everyone knows that Du! The stupidest Question I've ever seen.
2007-01-05 22:31:17 · answer #9 · answered by DogLover 1 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Yes, it is true for the decimal system and other bases.
2007-01-05 23:24:01 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋