2007-01-05 13:10:09 · 7 answers · asked by Wayne P 1 in Arts & Humanities ➔ Philosophy
Most of the time.
2007-01-05 13:12:35 · answer #1 · answered by Sophist 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
It depends if they still have the ACTUAL eye. If a person is in an accident and an eye is lost that eye will not produce tears. If an eye is damaged but still has the actual ball it will produce tears. If a person is born blind and they have both eyes intact they do produce tears but, people who are born without eyes have no tear ducts because they don't need to lubricate whats not there. The lubrication that's needed comes from the Eye Ball itself. The Eye Ball will dry out if it's not wet so tears are needed as is the need to blink.
2007-01-05 21:57:54 · answer #2 · answered by Bronx D 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Blindness has nothing to do with tear duct glands in 90% of the cases. So the answer is Yes.
2007-01-05 21:18:34 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
yes, for one does not need vision in order to cry, tears come from tear glands.
2007-01-05 21:27:55 · answer #4 · answered by Mikel S 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
yes they still have emotions
2007-01-05 21:17:37 · answer #5 · answered by Jessica R 5 · 0⤊ 1⤋
they have.
2007-01-05 21:50:32 · answer #6 · answered by monochrome 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes. duh.
2007-01-05 23:53:52 · answer #7 · answered by zaytox0724 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋