2007-01-05 12:50:43 · 7 answers · asked by Persephone W 1 in Politics & Government ➔ Government
Whenever the courts severely misinterpret the Constitution, it almost seems like they have amended it. One can hope that the courts will end up getting it right later on, in which case it wasn't really amended at all, just misinterpreted. But a "permanent" misinterpretation does indeed function like an amendment.
2007-01-05 14:02:08 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
No. Amending the constitution is a political process that affects the judicial process.
2007-01-05 14:35:35 · answer #2 · answered by Irvin R 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No. It is a part of the legislative process. Congress (aka the House and Senate) must create and ratify by majority any changes to the Constitution.
The judicial branch exists solely to interpret the constitutionality of laws.
2007-01-05 13:05:25 · answer #3 · answered by doubledeuce44 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No, it is a political process that effects the judicial process!
2007-01-05 13:03:46 · answer #4 · answered by cantcu 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It is part of the Democrat process.
2007-01-05 12:55:46 · answer #5 · answered by m c 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No, it is handled by the States and the Congress:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Article_Five_of_the_United_States_Constitution
2007-01-05 12:58:43 · answer #6 · answered by Pseudo Obscure 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
NO....
2007-01-05 13:00:54 · answer #7 · answered by lordkelvin 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋