i believe that the double standard when it comes to the genders and sexual promiscuity is justified. Why are men called studs and women aren't? If you want to understand the answer to this perform the following experiment. Get an attractive women to go out and talk to 5 unmarried (and uninvolved) guys for 2 minutes and then have her make a blunt request for sex. Now send an attractive guy out and have him talk to 5 unmarried women for two minutes and then make a blunt request for sex. We all know what will happen in each case. You see a man has to use skill and put in a lot of work that is why is considered a stud. All the women has to do is make herself available. Now if that ever changes then I will change my mind about all of this.
2007-01-05 05:44:54 · 13 answers · asked by Perceiver 3 in Social Science ➔ Gender Studies
The standard, as I understand it, is this:
Men are supposed to want sex, but they are considered rude when they ask for it.
Women aren't supposed to want sex, and they are considered whores when they ask for it.
2007-01-05 05:48:05 · answer #1 · answered by Jeff 3 · 5⤊ 1⤋
Random 6x7 is almost correct.
Basically nothing will stuff a marriage harder than women's infidelity.
A woman's infidelity will result in a man having to relinquish significant resources to take care of someone else's kid and an unfaithful wife. The husband cannot escape this, even if he wishes to care for any legitimate children in the marriage.
A husband's infidelity again affects resources HE relinquishes only.
Thus a woman's infidelity has a greater impact on the institution of marriage. Combine this with women's tendency for hypergamy, or marrying up for added resources and you have the "double standard".
Feminists also wonder why, by insisting on being able to break a marriage contract at any time but retain their side of the benefits, they are rendering the marriage contract utterly worthless and not only remaining whores, but almost openly turning men who were foolish enough to rely on the marriage contact into slaves.
2007-01-07 11:57:59 · answer #2 · answered by Happy Bullet 3 · 1⤊ 1⤋
Bullsh!t. The double standard exists because, back when men passed their stuff down to their firstborn son, they didn't want to risk raising and then enriching some other guy's kid. The only way to ensure that the boy was actually theirs was to make sure their wife didn't screw around. Women had to stay "pure" to make the patrilineal descent system work, and that's why we still have to deal with that crap. Putting prohibitions on sexual behavior only works if the prohibitions are _strong_ and cause lots of problems for anyone who goes against them, which is why the double standard still exists.
2007-01-05 13:28:16 · answer #3 · answered by random6x7 6 · 4⤊ 0⤋
I see your point, but a woman should be entitled to her sexual freedom as much as man. It is not a women's fault that men may be genetically programmed to look no further than looks.
However, I should imagine the kind of women that are promiscuous and always up for sex, would probably accept the attractive man's proposal before he even opened his mouth and had time to work his charms. Does this still count?
HTH : )
2007-01-05 06:11:30 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 6⤊ 0⤋
Women dont usually make blunt requests for sex so the double standard is NOT justifyable.
2007-01-05 09:33:36 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 3⤊ 0⤋
Women have the chore of bearing the child and raising it so they have to be very picky on mates. They want the best genes for their child so, yes, they do look at attractiveness in men and health and earning potential. That just makes sense.
Yes, men have to compete for women. This forces them to bathe, to compete for better jobs, and to work out. If they didn't have to do any of these to have sex, they'd be dirty couch potatoes looking for their next beer.
2007-01-05 05:58:26 · answer #6 · answered by loryntoo 7 · 2⤊ 0⤋
Hoooo boy, are some people going to have fun with this one. A man has to use "skill" and put in hard work to be called a stud.? HAWHAWHAWHAWHAWHAWHAW
My friend, the reason males are referred to as "studs" and not females is because the term comes from the Horse Breeding business, and a Stud Horse is the one whose genetic material is thought to make him suitable to be "put out to stud" in other words, to breed with the Mares. Somehow, the term got misinterpreted and males who fancied their "prowess" with the ladies thought that the word "stud" referred to their "copulating stamina".
A female of either the human or the equine species could hardly be referred to as a "stud" LOLOLOL
As for your suggested "experiment" I hope somebody can figure out its relevance because I sure can't
2007-01-05 06:51:55 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 7⤊ 1⤋
1
2017-03-02 03:40:44 · answer #8 · answered by ? 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I haven't thought of it like that before.
2007-01-05 07:49:14 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
Actually you have to be an *** to get inside an womans *** fast.
2007-01-05 16:00:03 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 1⤋