Why would a man get married again without divorcing his first wife? He had been separated for 10 years from his first wife. He did not tell his "second" wife that he was not divorced. The first marriage voids the second so why would a man do this?
2007-01-05 04:43:02 · 5 answers · asked by Granma Moses 1 in Family & Relationships ➔ Marriage & Divorce
He was not acting like a man. A real man would have taken care of the situation. The person you are talking about was either afraid of or too lazy to deal with the situation. He should have told the second wife or just had his first wife sign papers. I am guessing that the guy figured it would never be a problem. He probably assumed that in his second wife's eyes they were married and that was good enough for him. I am definately not making excuses for this guy but sometimes people just do not know how these things work.
2007-01-05 04:57:26 · answer #1 · answered by nhrideordie 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
He may feel that the first one was over after ten years. Maybe there is a complication preventing the actual divorce....(disagreement on something). Or...maybe he is just ignorant of the law?!
2007-01-05 04:57:10 · answer #2 · answered by dwarner33 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It could be that he did not realize what his legal situation was, or it could be that he is a lot smarter than the rest of us second timers. I would love to be in his position right now!!
2007-01-05 05:30:54 · answer #3 · answered by hog rock 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Duh.....he's a man.....I'm one but not as low as this one.
2007-01-05 04:55:50 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Because he is afraid to face the past.............
2007-01-05 04:46:20 · answer #5 · answered by Fishgutts 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋