Doesn't this somehow subvert the democratic process. If we as people vote for certian taxes why should someone spend those taxes trying to get them lowered and then write it off?
2007-01-04 19:58:23 · 3 answers · asked by Anonymous in Politics & Government ➔ Law & Ethics
A rich person is committing bribery in spending money for lobbying in order to get lower taxes. It is punishable under the law.
2007-01-04 21:26:04 · answer #1 · answered by FRAGINAL, JTM 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
NO, of course not.
"(e) Denial of deduction for certain lobbying and political expenditures
(1) In general
No deduction shall be allowed under subsection (a) for any amount paid or incurred in connection with--
(A) influencing legislation,
(B) participation in, or intervention in, any political campaign on behalf of (or in opposition to) any candidate for public office,
(C) any attempt to influence the general public, or segments thereof, with respect to elections, legislative matters, or referendums, or
(D) any direct communication with a covered executive branch official in an attempt to influence the official actions or positions of such official."
Quoted from title 26 of the United States Code, section 162(e).
2007-01-05 04:23:40 · answer #2 · answered by mattapan26 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
yes they can, and there is nothing illegal about this in US
2007-01-05 04:06:56 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋