2007-01-04 09:07:24 · 3 answers · asked by Jayme H 1 in Politics & Government ➔ Law & Ethics
As I understand your question it is whether a quorum can be defined differently in two places in the same set of bylaws. The answer would be "yes" if the quorums are for different purposes. I.e., a larger number might be required for a quorum to vote on motions involving financial expenditures. A problem would exist, however, if the quorum was defined differently in the same bylaws and for the same purposes.
2007-01-04 09:20:13 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
Sure, if the bylaws are ammended. Of course, that requires a quorum. You can see the circle developing.
2007-01-04 09:10:51 · answer #2 · answered by Bostonian In MO 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Not unless the by-laws provide for a provision to ignore t he quorum requirement. Sometimes this is a delegated action to the officers of the organization.
2007-01-04 09:15:30 · answer #3 · answered by red_jim_pa 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋