If there are for every year on average 20 births per 1000 people, could we extrapolate this to saying that there are 20 women pregnant per 1000 people (if we take for a pregnancy 9 months and if the numbers stay the same for several years)?
2007-01-04 07:20:37 · 5 answers · asked by Hor1000 2 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
No, over the course of a year you could have as many as 40 women pregnant at one time or have none.
Think of if this way take 1000 women: 20 women became pregnant Jan 1, seven months later 20 more women become pregnant so now you have 40 pregnant women, 20 of whom will give birth this year and 20 who will give birth next year. So in July you would 40 pregnant women and by end of April the next year you could have none and still have 20 births per years. Given the right timing you could have 11 months with nobody being pregnant and still make your 20 births per years.
If it not clear post back an edit and I'll try to help.
2007-01-04 07:35:41 · answer #1 · answered by Richard 7 · 1⤊ 1⤋
As 9 months is only three quarters of a year, there would be 15 pregnant women at any time, assuming all pregnancies resulted in a single child.
2007-01-04 15:27:15 · answer #2 · answered by Elizabeth Howard 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
heh?
not sure what ya mean, but don't forget to take into account the pregnancies that don't result in births.
2007-01-04 15:24:44 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 0⤋
No, if for no other reason than that some pregnancies result in twins, triples, quadruplets, etc.
2007-01-04 15:24:33 · answer #4 · answered by Jim Burnell 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes, if you discount the possibility of twins.
I think the correct answer would be slightly less.
2007-01-04 15:24:23 · answer #5 · answered by crazy_tentacle 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋