How democratic was britain in 1906?

Answer 1

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Suffrage

The above link gives you the voting rights of people in the uk in 1906. You will find it was not very democratic- 40% of males were still without the vote, whilst women could not vote at all.

Answer 2

Britain led democracy in sense of the Government being accountable to an elected House of Commons: this dates from the settlement between Charles II and Parliament in 1660 following the English Civil War and from the accession of William III and Mary in 1688 following the Glorious Revolution in 1688, after James II had attempted to become an absolute monarch. However, as has been pointed out already, the British franchise in 1906 was far from universal as male voters were subject to a property qualification. Women did not get the vote at all until 1918 for those over 30 and 1929 for those over 21. The British franchise did not reach its current state until 1970 when those aged 18 - 21 got the vote.

The franchise was not the only limitation on British democracy in 1906. A major issue concerning the Parliament elected in 1906 was that the House of Lords, which was then entirely hereditary excepting the Law Lords and the Bishops, had equal rights with the Commons. By convention, the Lords did not defeat financial bills proposed by the Commons, but Lloyd George, then Chancellor of the Exchequer in the Liberal Government, included many social measures (e.g. pensions) in the 1909 Budget, which was defeated by the Tory majority in the Lords ("Balfour's Poodle" - A.J.Balfour, the previous Tory Prime Minster, remained as Leader of the Opposition). Asquith, the Prime Minister, sought to break this deadlock by having the King created enough peers to give the Liberals a majority in the Lords. King Edward VII was reluctant and made Asquith call a General Election in January 1910, which the Liberals won once the support of Irish Nationalist and Labour members is taken into account. Following the death of Edward VII and the accession of George V, a second election in December 1910 gave a very similar result. A majority of the Tories in the Lords backed down.

The story of the conflict between Commons and Lords after 1906 highlights the role of the Royal prerogative, which is also a limitation on UK democracy even today. In addition to the crown's theoretical rights to veto bills, foreign policy is largely made using the royal prerogative even today (c.f. Iraq). It is also of latent relevance that the armed forces swear allegiance to the monarch.

There was a great deal of unrest in Britain in the years before the First World War, both over the Irish Question and because of industrial unrest. The years 1912-1914 in particular led to widespread strikes and to unrest in Ulster, where the Unionists were actively threatening revolt. In a famous book by George Dangerfield published in the 1030s, "The Strange Death of Liberal England" powerful arguments are set out that if it had not been for the First World War Britain could have ben on the verge of revolution. So in considering democracy in Britian in 1906 it is advisable to consider not only the formal arrangements of Brtish government but also how stable they were given political pressures (e.g. the Suffragettes) operating outside formal structures.

Answer 3

In c1906 UK was not very democratic. It was the age of the Suffragettes, when Socialist women held huge demonstrations in support of "Votes for Women." In reality, half the adult population did not have a vote as a result of women not having the vote. Winston Churchill opposed votes for women before WW-One.

The common man had only been given the vote in c1860 (not sure of exact year). The country at that time, known as the Edwardian era, was primarily still dominated by an aristocratic elite who filled both houses of parliament. MPs received no salary or expenses and therefore becoming an MP was extremely difficult unless a person happened to be, a) male and b) rich.

In my childhood there were still wealthy aristocrats dominating the politics of UK.

It really is only in quite recent years (the last ten) that the House of Lords has seen any significant changes in that it's members now have to be elected by the government or its appointees. (Not 100 per cent how this works). Slowly, UK is working it's way towards a fully fledged democracy in that the House of Lords will ultimately have to go to the people to be elected or closed down as good for nothing.

The British people are far too patient. What happened in the American Colonies in c1776 was the best move ever by the common people. Should have happened here.

Answer 4

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Answer 5

The only country to give ALL citizens the vote before 1920 was Finland, upon independence in 1918.

But much of Europe and the British Empire & the US has made significant progress by then. Let's hope it continues to make progress in this coming century, it has a strong entrenched oligopoly=elite of powerful MNCs & PLCs (and some media barons and finance cartels) to try and restrict if it is ever to achieve true rule by the people.

Answer 6

In 1906 as your answerer's correctly state it was not.
Unfortunately we still have not achieved democracy today in 2007, politics is dressed differently it is more slick but it is only cosmetic.
We do not have democracy 100 years later.

Answer 7

Did it? So how come i've got not observed. we nevertheless have the Hanoverians and the Spencers working issues, do not we? Cameron is previous Etonian and the majority in public existence have been privately knowledgeable. No, i think of you're incorrect.

Answer 8

I would say, not at all! And the first answer above is correct.
Brainlady deserves the ten points.

Answer 9

Not very. It didn't allow women to vote.

Answer 10

This link should give you some clue! http://64.233.161.104/search?q=cache:71O-DlLrch8J:www.learningcurve.gov.uk/britain1906to1918/+britain+suffrage&hl=en&ct=clnk&cd=2