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2007-01-03 17:50:47 · 7 answers · asked by The Knowledge Server 1 in Arts & Humanities Philosophy

7 answers

The Kama Sutra was written by one Vatsyayana Mallanaga, about whom nothing else is known. However, from the text, it's clear that he was upper-class. He takes servants for granted, and assumes his readers have the leisure time to seduce virgins and other men's wives, and the money to buy the gifts he recommends giving to do so. Vatsyayana also claims to have written his treatise "in chastity and highest meditation." It's hard to know what to make of this. Some commentators have scoffed that, given the subject matter, this seems highly unlikely. But considering the reverence with which the ancient Hindus approached matters sexual, it's also possible that Vatsyayana wrote his book with the gravity of, say, a modern-art critic discussing a cache of just-discovered erotic paintings by Picasso. We'll never know.

2007-01-03 18:05:23 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

The unity has to be broken to find out the order of the united parts.

2007-01-03 18:16:08 · answer #2 · answered by small 7 · 0 0

There's no sequence to unity. It arises out of common understanding and resolve. And these are not necessarily dependent on some particular order.

2007-01-03 22:55:21 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

It is possible but not necessarily always. It all depends upon the extent of the comprehensible-information provided.

2007-01-03 18:33:00 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

A disperate analysis of your tangential premise leads both to a conjunctive morass and a transparent milieu.

2007-01-03 18:02:24 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

It all depends on which state of america or mind you are being taxed in.

2007-01-03 18:02:10 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

yes

2007-01-03 18:13:27 · answer #7 · answered by Roostah N 1 · 0 0

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