Say , if a rigid planet is rotating with the angular velocity " W" such that W> (R/g)^(1/2) , (R = radius of planet, g = acceleration due to gravitational force). Then according to the equation g'= g-(W^2 R), the value of g' will be negative and does a negative force of gravity. My question is that am I faultering in my assumptions?
2007-01-03
15:33:24
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6 answers
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asked by
vanchit
2
in
Science & Mathematics
➔ Physics
We know that hypothetically it is said that gravity at equator will become zero if earth rotates with 17 times its present angular velocity.
2007-01-03
15:34:51 ·
update #1