Any help is appreciated.
2007-01-03 14:22:48 · 6 answers · asked by Random G 3 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
These people are wrong, the answer is actually y = -x.
To find the inverse:
1. Switch the x and y.
2. Then solve for y.
1. x = -y
2.-x = y
This works because remember a function and it's inverse are symmetric along the line y = x.
y = -x is already symmetric along the line y = x.
Hope that makes sense :D
2007-01-03 14:32:00 · answer #1 · answered by teekshi33 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
To find the inverse switch x and y.
x = -y
y = -x
It is the same line.
2007-01-03 14:31:30 · answer #2 · answered by Northstar 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
if y=x then
inverse is x= -y
2007-01-03 20:44:01 · answer #3 · answered by alexa dion 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
x = -y
Better still
If f(x) = -x
f^(-1) (x) = -x (it is its own inverse)
ie f(f(x)) = f(-x) = - (-x) = x
So f(2) = -2
f^(-1) (-2) = - -2
= 2
Just as f(f(2)) = f(-2) = 2
2007-01-03 14:26:39 · answer #4 · answered by Wal C 6 · 0⤊ 1⤋
x=-y
2007-01-03 14:33:09 · answer #5 · answered by raj 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
x=-y
2007-01-03 14:25:52 · answer #6 · answered by yupchagee 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋