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2007-01-03 12:13:52 · 2 answers · asked by butterflylova2 2 in Arts & Humanities Philosophy

2 answers

Don't know but good question though.

2007-01-03 13:00:10 · answer #1 · answered by Cactus Dan 3 · 0 0

if the person was born blind, then they dream in all the other senses

those other sensory dreams have the same purpose and effect of a visual dream to non blind people

if the person once had vision, then they may have visual dreams

but yes, they do have dreams; but not visually. Only smell, touch, taste and audio.

2007-01-03 12:21:57 · answer #2 · answered by iheartmusic808 1 · 0 0

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