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cant? if u can plz give the shortest answer

2007-01-03 09:59:37 · 3 answers · asked by arman 1 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

3 answers

Edit: didn't realize that was a pi symbol.

lim ([2/pi] * arctan(x))
x -> infinity

Is equal to

lim (2arctan(x)/pi)
n -> infinity

But as x gets very large, arctan actually converges to a value (pi/2). Therefore, we get

2(pi/2)/pi = 2pi/2pi = 1

2007-01-03 10:04:19 · answer #1 · answered by Puggy 7 · 0 0

Since lim x-> pi/2 of tan x approaches infinity, I think
lim x -> infinity of arctan x is pi/2. So your limit is 2/pi * pi/2 = 1.

2007-01-03 18:05:06 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

plug in the decimal to inverse tangent and see if the limit exists within the given bound of infinity.

2007-01-03 18:02:17 · answer #3 · answered by bryce 2 · 0 0

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