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2007-01-03 02:44:23 · 3 answers · asked by intwhite 1 in Arts & Humanities History

3 answers

Neither was deaf. Plato taught Aristotle and Socrates taught Plato, and Socrates said that deaf people were incapable of language and therefore incapable of thought, so none of them was deaf. I did hear once that Alexander the Great (who was taught by Aristotle) was deaf, but I have never found anything to back that up.

2007-01-03 04:14:34 · answer #1 · answered by seasonsoflove 3 · 1 0

I didn't think so. Homer was supposed to be deaf.

2007-01-03 10:51:36 · answer #2 · answered by Elizabeth Howard 6 · 0 2

...........plato..............

2007-01-03 14:59:10 · answer #3 · answered by beckster 1 · 0 0

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