If the author says that Jesus Christ was a mortal prophet then why does he again & again refer to Mary Magdalene as goddess?
2007-01-02 23:47:38 · 3 answers · asked by afiasan 3 in Arts & Humanities ➔ Books & Authors
Maybe that is how he sees her.
2007-01-03 00:06:57 · answer #1 · answered by shamoolax 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
I think he is trying to use her as a representation of the Mother Goddess worshipped by many societies before Christianity came along. And I'm not so sure he meant that Jesus was entirely mortal, only that because he was partly mortal (remember, he had a mortal mother), he could have followed the traditions of the culture of the time and married, possibly having children. It was the duty of every father to find a wife for his son, and Jesus didn't begin his ministry until he was about 30, long after he would have married in that society.
2007-01-03 08:24:16 · answer #2 · answered by cross-stitch kelly 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Because she is supposed to be the wife of Jesus and she carried his bloodline on Earth after his death.
2007-01-06 12:47:20 · answer #3 · answered by Sam 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋