2007-01-02 18:04:41 · 4 answers · asked by ganesh p 1 in Social Science ➔ Gender Studies
I dunno. Besides the fact that they don't exist? If so I can't say I do.
Go see for yourself how far you get with patents and copyrights with after-the-fact claims.
2007-01-03 06:59:40 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes. It refers to your rights over matters that you originated or invented. Check with your local IPR Bureau or Trade and Industry Bureau for the complete rules and regulations as well as the requirements for claiming ownership for your invention.
2007-01-03 04:00:49 · answer #2 · answered by Willie Boy 5 · 1⤊ 0⤋
it is what you intellectually have.for eg when you invent sth butb never applied in practice due to finance,etc
2007-01-03 02:24:56 · answer #3 · answered by HeavyRain 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes.
2007-01-03 02:13:16 · answer #4 · answered by nicko 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋