2007-01-02 15:52:30 · 13 answers · asked by joseph m 1 in Arts & Humanities ➔ History
Actually, there are a number of accounts from the Soviets that chemical weapons were used in the battle of Stalingrad by both the Germans and the Soviets. These accounts were (obviously) not openly investigated at the time and at this point all that remains to back this claim up is various scattered documents recovered after the Soviet Union was dissolved.
Frequently the reason most of my history professors used as to why Hitler didn't use chemical weapons was because of his presumed exposure to their use in WWI (he was a WWI veteran, remember), and that because he was so disgusted by what he saw from their use he forbade his army from using them.
I tend to believe the claims in the old Soviet documents; I think both the Soviets and the Germans used chemical weapons against each other.
See the link below for other theories.
2007-01-02 16:02:03 · answer #1 · answered by keyuehan7878 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
I'm not sure about Germany but I do know that Japan was working on biological weapons for quite a while. In fact they had 3 huge submarines that actually could hold 2 aircraft in them and the idea was to go unseen to the coast of California and launch the planes and drop the biological material on LA and San Diego.
2007-01-02 16:00:17 · answer #2 · answered by Haven17 5 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Yes he received a mild case of Mustard Gas poisoning and spent several months in the hospital recovering from it. Maybe that was the one of the reasons he didn't allow these kinds of weapons to be used again. As to them using gas in the concentration camps, do you really think that the ones running them even bothered to tell him what methods they were using. Hitler had more important things to worry about then that. Besides if he was against using biological weapons they would risk pissing him off and getting shot or being spent to the Eastern Front, Russia, for disobeying his orders, I don't think so. Good Luck and have a nice day.
2016-05-22 21:51:56 · answer #3 · answered by Audrey 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Simple answer -- he didn't have them to use. Most of Germany's stock of chemical and biological weapons was used up during World War I; what wasn't used up was destroyed or confiscated by the Allied powers after Germany's surrender.
2007-01-02 16:00:59 · answer #4 · answered by oldironclub 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Hitler in fact, indeed contemplated the use biological weapons against the Allies. It was his Propaganda Minister Joseph Goebbels who persuaded him against it. Goebbels said "The Geneva Convention forbids it [biological weapons], and it is more a disadvantage for us if the Allies did the same to our soldiers".
2007-01-03 01:27:36 · answer #5 · answered by roadwarrior 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Because Germany was too vulnerable to retalition from air power and on the battlefield a change of wind direction can turn your weapon against you
2007-01-02 18:02:41 · answer #6 · answered by brainstorm 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Of course he used chemical weapons.. on his wife and pet doggy haha... After the sucker realized he'd lose the war.
2007-01-02 16:00:38 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
the germans used chemical weapons in the first world war and it back fired on them an killed many german soldiers..so i think that may have had something to do with it..plus he knew everyone else had them also....i think because of what happened in WW11
2007-01-02 18:28:56 · answer #8 · answered by man behind blue eyes 4 · 1⤊ 0⤋
HITLER HAD TWICE FALLEN PREY TO CHEMICAL WEAPONS IN THE FIRST WORLD WAR . STRANGE THOUGH IT MAY SOUND , HAVING FACED THE TRUE HORROR OF THE CHEMICAL WEAPONS - HE COULD JUST NOT GET HIMSELF TO USE THESE WEAPONS , EVEN THOUGH GERMAN INDUSTRY HAD ALREADY CREATED A STOCK OF THEM AND HIS GENERALS WERE CLAMOURING TO USE THEM.
2007-01-02 16:18:43 · answer #9 · answered by shreyo_s 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Truman ordered the development of the hydrogyn bomb 1st (with foreign scientists -do research on it, u'll get surprised)
2007-01-02 16:05:20 · answer #10 · answered by Tune 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋