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being that the lawyer was payed but never represented him, is it possible with reciepts that he can get the money back.

2007-01-02 10:09:37 · 6 answers · asked by coleen g 1 in Politics & Government Law & Ethics

6 answers

What, is the lawyer refusing to reimburse funds? Contact the local bar association to file a complaint if all else fails.

2007-01-02 10:16:54 · answer #1 · answered by S D Modiano 5 · 0 0

The lawyer is ethically required to account for how the $500 was applied. At $250 an hour, if they talked about the case for 2 hours, the money is gone. Generally, a lawyer will deposit funds in his client trust account until work is done and fees are incurred and then take the money out of the trust account. Funds in the trust account still technically belong to the client. If no work was ever done, the funds would still belong to the client and would have to be refunded. The American Bar Association, despite every lawyer show on TV to the contrary, has NOTHING to do with policing the behavior of lawyers. Lawyers are regulated by the State Bar, State Board of Bar Overseers or similar entity.

2007-01-02 18:30:12 · answer #2 · answered by mattapan26 7 · 0 0

It's possible but not likely. I'm betting there was some contract between them, and in the details are the determinant. Have you considered that your buddy may just be grousing about his lawyer not having to appear in court? The money paid may have been a retainer, or it may have gone to preliminary work that turned out not to be used in court but still may have been germaine. $500 is only a couple hours' notes and phone calls for a lot of lawyers.

2007-01-02 18:38:33 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

If the lawyer works for a large firm, you friend can communicate with the Managing Partner of the law firm, regarding the issue.

Your friend should contact The American Bar Association in the city where he lives. They may be able to advise him on how to proceed.

2007-01-02 18:19:26 · answer #4 · answered by newyorkgal71 7 · 0 0

Theoretically yes, if he paid for a service rendered and the service was not rendered he should be repaid in full, but we're dealing with a lawyer here (albeit a crappy one, by the sound of it) so it might be more difficult.

2007-01-02 18:12:57 · answer #5 · answered by Aleksandr 4 · 0 0

well that depends , if the lawyer charges people for information or advice

2007-01-02 18:12:02 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

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