I know that PMI is an amount you pay if you don't put a down payment of at least 20% of the value. If the apprasial value is higher than the purchase price the lower price is used for the 20%. The question is if the apprasial value of the home is less than the purchase price how much do you have to pay in to be considered not required to pay PMI? This is a property in NYC.
eg. Purchase price = 100,000;
apprasial value = 50,000
what is the down payment amount without being subject to PMI?
a) 20% of purchase price = 20,000 or
b) 20% of value + difference = 60,000 = (20% of 50,000 + (100,000 - 50,000) difference between purchase price and appraisal)
Thanks
2007-01-02
09:54:19
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5 answers
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asked by
echo1181
1
in
Business & Finance
➔ Renting & Real Estate
or c) the difference $50,000 only
Note I'm sure this can happen if you already signed a contract and the price of the home drops. Let's just hope my place doesn't drop to drastically before closing with is still pending (new construction). Need to make sure the funds are available when I am closing.
2007-01-02
10:33:38 ·
update #1
By the way the above is just an example and not the actual facts. I basically exaggerated the facts and amounts
2007-01-03
14:08:23 ·
update #2