yes or no???
2007-01-02 02:17:25 · 12 answers · asked by wicked 1 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
Nooooooooo!
Its a rectangular hyperbola of the form xy=c ; here c=1
The X and Y axes are its two asymptotes!
Asymptote:
On a graph, a curve which is approached but never reached.
Thus it NEVER reaches y-axis ...how can it cross it??
2007-01-02 02:18:15 · answer #1 · answered by Som™ 6 · 3⤊ 1⤋
No, the graph never crosses the y-axis.
Whenever a graph crosses the y-axis, its y-coordinate is zero. But if xy = 1, then y can't be zero, because anything times zero is zero (not 1). So the graph of xy = 1 never crosses the y-axis.
2007-01-02 02:47:22 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
No it does not.
To make more sense of this problem trying rearranging the variables to make it y=1/x.
Crossing the y axis would correspond to a value of 0 for X. However, by looking at the graph y=1/x, we see that is impossible due to dividing by 0.
Hope this helps
2007-01-02 02:23:32 · answer #3 · answered by jphelps321 1 · 2⤊ 1⤋
What happens when x = -1 and y = -1? And when x = 1 and y =1? Yes, the graph can cross the y-axis.
2007-01-02 02:22:47 · answer #4 · answered by Elizabeth Howard 6 · 0⤊ 5⤋
YEs for x=-1 and y-1
2007-01-02 02:32:18 · answer #5 · answered by Suhas 2 · 0⤊ 2⤋
when x=∞ or x=-∞, y=0
2007-01-02 05:13:01 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
X= -1, y= -1 xy=1
x= 1, y= 1 xy=1
Just plot these two sets of points.
2007-01-02 02:22:00 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 2⤋
Theoretically the graph touches x-axis when x tends to (+-infinity) and it touches y-axis when y tends to (+-infinity).
2007-01-02 02:26:03 · answer #8 · answered by Sheen 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
nope not with real numbers.
2007-01-02 02:25:01 · answer #9 · answered by lozatron 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
nope
2007-01-02 02:18:10 · answer #10 · answered by Michael784 2 · 1⤊ 2⤋