Good question! The answer is that Shakespeare borrowed the plot from a poem called "The Tragicall History of Romeus and Juliet" by Arthur Brooke. This poem, in turn, was based on an Italian story, which was based on another Italian story, and so on ... and the Italian story was set in Verona, an old and important Italian city at that time. Luigi da Porto wrote the first version where the plot was set in Verona. He lived in Vicenza near Verona, so it's not so strange that he picked Verona.
This is from Wikipedia:
"In fact, his play is a dramatisation of Arthur Brooke's narrative poem The Tragicall History of Romeus and Juliet (1562). Shakespeare followed Brooke's poem fairly closely but enriched its texture by adding extra detail to both major and minor characters, in particular the Nurse and Mercutio.
Brooke's poem was not original either, being a translation and adaptation of Giuletta e Romeo, by Matteo Bandello, included in his Novelle of 1554. This was in turn an adaptation of Luigi da Porto's Giulietta e Romeo, included in his Istoria novellamente ritrovata di due Nobili Amanti (c. 1530). This is the version that gave the story much of its modern form, including the names of the lovers, the rival families of Montecchi and Capuleti, and the location in Verona, in the Veneto.
However, the earliest-known version of the tale is the 1476 story of Mariotto and Gianozza of Siena by Masuccio Salernitano, in Il Novelino (Novella XXXIII)."
2007-01-02 04:31:58
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answer #1
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answered by AskAsk 5
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"Two Gentlemen Of Verona" is a separate play firstly. Shakespeare was definitely English not Italian, and "Romeo And Juliet" is based on an actual feud that happened between two well to do families in Verona.
2007-01-02 02:07:28
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answer #2
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answered by Anonymous
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I remember learning that one of the reasons of Shakespeare chosing to use Verona as the setting was because he did not want to criticize his own community, even though obviously it was directed at any community. His audience probably would not be very happy if the story was set in England, since that was where the plays were shown and it would be criticizing their way of life, even though it was generally applied to anybody. I would also think that maybe it has something to do with the religious aspect of Italy as there are many statues seen (this is demonstrated in the film, where it is showed many times), as there are religious symbols mentioned throughout the play.
2016-05-23 05:54:34
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answer #3
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answered by Anonymous
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Because it's plagiarised and Shakespeare saw no reason to change the setting, particularly as it reflected the grim times of the wars of religion, while he was writing for an English audience in a time of political stability. The characters Romeo and Giulietta appeared for the first time in a novel by Luigi da Porta (1485-1529) which in turn took up the subject matter already developed in the tale by Masuccio Salernitano and subsequently used by Matteo Bandello in one of his "Novelle". But the nub of the tale can be traced quite easily to the story of Pyramus and Thisbe by Ovid.
2007-01-02 06:04:06
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answer #4
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answered by Doethineb 7
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It has been argued that Shakespeare was actually Italian and just came to England to live. Some people are very confident that
this is the truth, while others refuse to accept that England's greatest play-write was not actually English!
Either way it is apparent that Shakespeare was familiar with the country, and there is nothing like an exotic location for a story to give it that bit extra.
2007-01-02 00:39:20
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answer #5
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answered by Anonymous
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Fair verona....? Come on it wouldn't have been as effective if it was "fair london..." "fair Startford...", potentially this is the greatest love story ever told, and Italy has a heart that runs just as deep. It creates the moment before the play has even started!
2007-01-02 01:14:32
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answer #6
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answered by ebex 2
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Because back then everything was centered around Italy and the people that were watching the plays did not live there so they didnt have a clue what Italy was like. So the play writers would use that to there advantage because the people thought it was so much better there because the way it was portrayed that way.
2007-01-02 00:34:55
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answer #7
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answered by Dr. Phil at heart 1
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Because generally plays of the Jacobean era are a comment on society in general, and it wasn't a good idea to comment too closely about governments or royalty or noble families in your own country.
Shakespear was trying to bring situations and issues to the masses and maybe make them think about their own lives/the lives of people around them - it was generally safer to set these situations in a foreign country and so give distance to the problems that arise.
2007-01-05 00:29:34
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answer #8
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answered by Kellie F 1
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I thought it was 2 gentleman of verona
2007-01-02 00:31:55
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answer #9
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answered by colin050659 6
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Because William Shakespeare has a very romantic view about everything and anywhere that is not England seems to be romantic, especially as not a lot of people could afford to travel.
2007-01-02 00:36:54
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answer #10
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answered by Anonymous
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