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2007-01-01 23:59:58 · 13 answers · asked by Rajaram 1 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

13 answers

n!=n(n-1)!
1!=1*(1-1)!
1!=1*0!
1!/1=0!=1

Note:You can't use this formula with negative or franctional numbers.n means natural number.

2007-01-02 00:11:43 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 2 0

0+1=1

2007-01-02 08:12:29 · answer #2 · answered by manveen tanghi 1 · 0 1

0 = 0 Therefore 0 != 1

2007-01-02 08:04:20 · answer #3 · answered by taknev 3 · 0 1

This is not a proovable thing, it is a definition introduced to make several formulae look and work better in combinatorics.
I.e. the newton symbol "n over k"=n!/(n!*(n-k)!) indicates how many ways there are to choose k elements in a set of n elements. If you put k=n, there is only one way, so 1=n!/(0!*n!) for this to be true, we would like 0! to be =1
Also, you can define the factorial by using the Euler's gamma function
n!=Gamma(n+1)
so 0!= Gamma(1)
and the Gamma function is defined as an integral
Gamma(z)=Integral_0^(infinity) (t^(z-1)* exp(-t) dt)
0!=Gamma(1)=Integral_0^(infinity) (exp(-t) dt)=1
Enough?

2007-01-02 08:15:42 · answer #4 · answered by misiekram 3 · 1 0

PHX is absolutely correct.

Due to its recursive nature,

n! = n(n - 1)!

Plugging in n = 1, we get

1! = 1(1 - 1)!

Simplifying

1! = 1(0)!

Showing that 1! = 0! = 1.

I was trying to come up with a way to find the factorial of negative numbers using PHX's method but couldn't.

2007-01-02 08:17:05 · answer #5 · answered by Puggy 7 · 0 0

in the field R 0 is the unique neutral element of addition
if 1 = 0 then 0 isnt unique .

2007-01-02 08:19:12 · answer #6 · answered by gjmb1960 7 · 0 1

this is an axiom and it cannot be proved just like any number to the power 0 is equal to 1 :)

2007-01-02 08:10:33 · answer #7 · answered by igor_wilk 2 · 0 0

1*0 = 0
0*0 = 0
divide by 0!
1 = 0!!!!!!!!!!!!!

2007-01-03 23:56:33 · answer #8 · answered by 111s 2 · 0 0

n! = n * (n - 1) * (n - 2) * ... * 2 * 1
n! = n*(n - 1)!

Using first equation 1! = 1
Using second equation 1! = 1 * 0!

So 1 * 0! = 1
So 0! = 1

2007-01-02 08:15:41 · answer #9 · answered by Tom :: Athier than Thou 6 · 0 0

n!=n*n-1*n-2*........1;
that means,
n!=n*n-1!
put n=1;
1!=1!*0!
or
0!=1!/1
but 1!=1
0!=1/1=1
...proved

2007-01-02 08:12:03 · answer #10 · answered by IN PURSUIT OF WISDOM 2 · 0 0

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