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2007-01-01 20:39:05 · 2 answers · asked by T D 1 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

L-measurable means lebesgue measurable

2007-01-01 20:39:55 · update #1

2 answers

Not necessarily.

Suppose we restrict ourselves to the set (0,1).

Let E be a subset of (0,1) that is not L-measurable.

Redefine the function with domain (0,1) (which is L-measurable by the way) so that:

f(x) = x if x is in E and f(x) = -x if x is in (0, 1)\E

Then we can see that the set { x in (0, 1) : f(x) > 0} = E, which is not L-measurable by assumption.

So f fails to uphold the definition of L-measurability.

2007-01-01 21:19:40 · answer #1 · answered by alsh 3 · 0 0

No your function is not measurable. Because (f + Id)/x is not

2007-01-01 20:55:05 · answer #2 · answered by gianlino 7 · 0 0

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