This was sorta a strange and random thought that I had with friends of mine. Now I'm not asking this to be rude or stupid. But is it possible, if the person is a perfect hermaphrodite in contaning all necessary parts and things, to be able to impregnate themselves with a child?
If so, What could happen with the child genetics and documentation wise?
2007-01-01 17:06:43 · 12 answers · asked by rezruf 3 in Society & Culture ➔ Cultures & Groups ➔ Lesbian, Gay, Bisexual, and Transgender
Da ben dan is the only one who knows what they're talking about!!
First off, hermaphrodites is a non-pc term.... like midgets, fags, or *******. Pull it out of your vocabulary.
Intersexed people fall somewhere along the spectrum between male and female. They very rarely fall exactly in the middle with a full set of both parts, and if so, I've never heard of one being able to reproduce, because both full sets aren't fully functional.
2007-01-01 18:28:41 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 0⤋
You sort of answered yourself. Although the exterior appearance might be intermediate or even opposite, the genetic sex is an on/off thing (either you have SRY, or you don't). Gametogenesis depends on hormone levels; hermaphrodites usually have hormone imbalances (that's the reason for their phenotype) that effectively makes them sterile. Dna of the same sex cannot produce an offspring in mammals; experiments in mice created only theratomes(sp?). Zygotes from two male nuclei gave small embryos with huge placentas; zygotes from two female nuclei gave more or less normal embryos but with small placentas insufficient for their survival in utero. The reason for this behaviour lies in the different epigenetic inactivation of parental genes through methylation.
2016-05-23 05:11:32 · answer #2 · answered by ? 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Personally, but not scientifically, I would say this can only happen in fiction. But if I'm wrong, my guess would be that any child produced would be a bit strange.
2007-01-01 17:42:15 · answer #3 · answered by honest_funny_charlie 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
I'm a nurse, and I asked one of the doctors here at the hospital. I was told, that yes it can occur. It is very rare, and the offspring would have a high change of health problems. Any thing is possible. Never let someone tell you different.
2007-01-01 18:28:56 · answer #4 · answered by white wolf 2 · 0⤊ 2⤋
Acctually yes. It is VERY RARE but it can occur. The child's DNA would be the same twice though (since the mother an father are the same person). The child would not be alive at birth.
2007-01-01 17:14:57 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 2⤋
Not Possible Only one of the external organs is present and the opposite one is internal.
2007-01-01 17:45:49 · answer #6 · answered by emoskaterboi626 1 · 2⤊ 1⤋
No it isn't possible...they never contain both sets of sexual organs that are fully functional.
2007-01-01 17:12:02 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
I've heard it's possible but highly rare.
2007-01-01 21:19:10 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
no, only one of the reproductive organs works
2007-01-01 17:09:37 · answer #9 · answered by bardofatlantis 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
it is impossible because one of the sexual systems is not fully formed.
2007-01-01 17:49:00 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋