Explain why 2(x-3)=x-2 and x-3=(x-2)/2 have the same solution! (words please)
2007-01-01 09:29:26 · 4 answers · asked by oppa 2 in Education & Reference ➔ Homework Help
If you divide both sides of the first equation by two, you get the second equation. As long as you perform the indentical operation of both sides of the equation, it is does not effect on the equilbrium of the equation. That is the method used to solve for x.
2007-01-01 09:33:51 · answer #1 · answered by Bryan C 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
On the left side, 2 is multiplied to (x-3). You can get rid of the 2 by dividing it on both sides. The left side becomes x-3 and the right side becomes (x-2)/2. They are the exact same problems.
2007-01-01 17:36:43 · answer #2 · answered by JAB 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
In your first equation, divide both sides by 2. You end up with the exact same thing as the second equation.
2007-01-01 17:33:59 · answer #3 · answered by kittenpie 3 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Because they are equivalent equations.
You can solve the equation by saying:
2(x-3)=x-2
2=(x-2)/(x-3)
OR
2(x-3)=x-2
x-3=(x-2)/2
It is the associative rule I believe, it has been awhile since I had algebra though.
2007-01-01 17:35:25 · answer #4 · answered by operaphantom2003 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋