2007-01-01 07:09:38 · 7 answers · asked by Dill pickle 1 in Society & Culture ➔ Other - Society & Culture
The declaration was signed before we even had very many slaves.
2007-01-01 07:14:32 · answer #1 · answered by Sean 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Techically, no. The Declaration of Indepence was written by and for male land owners. No one who did not own land was even really considered inthis document. Freedom for slaves did not occur until the Emancipation Proclamation issued by President Lincoln. And, even then, it techically only freed the slaves in the rebelling states...
Many of our Founding Fathers were slaveowners, they would not have jepordized what they saw as the foundation of their way of life and weath by freeing their slaves.
2007-01-01 07:14:29 · answer #2 · answered by harpertara 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
no,but nice to c u understand total enslavements:it is the same as why the Romans learned to become Christan's, they win either way but they get embraced this way and you are still the slave and nothing changes big brother is waiting way down the road with all the bucks and all the steering committees, think tanks: from hell, u haven't even seen the border laterly Ur still in the wilderness, thank God for infallibility's wrong place wrong time same slaves
2007-01-01 07:16:23 · answer #3 · answered by bev 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
That document gave America freedom from Britain. Kind of. Indirectly.
That was before slavery in America.
2007-01-01 07:15:19 · answer #4 · answered by mayflyish 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
no, the Emancipation Proclomation and the 13th through 15th ammendments freed them. According to the Constitution they should have been free from the start. But that struggle lasted many many years. Refer to your history book.
2007-01-01 07:16:13 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
nope
2007-01-01 07:13:13 · answer #6 · answered by rosends 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No.
2007-01-01 07:12:01 · answer #7 · answered by Nicole B 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋