America follows the onedrop rule. If you are atleast 1/16 black, you are considered leagally black, so if you are atleast 1/16 white, are you considered leagally white? It confuses me. Shouldn't the onedrop rule apply to all races, and not just blacks? If it doesn't apply to whites, is it because there is a racial flaw in our government showing white supremecy? I ask this because I myself am bi-racial, and I want to know where I stand.
Another thing, Do you think that there should be a new racial category covering those who are of mixed descendant?
2006-12-31
17:57:31
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4 answers
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asked by
Anonymous
in
Society & Culture
➔ Cultures & Groups
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