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America follows the onedrop rule. If you are atleast 1/16 black, you are considered leagally black, so if you are atleast 1/16 white, are you considered leagally white? It confuses me. Shouldn't the onedrop rule apply to all races, and not just blacks? If it doesn't apply to whites, is it because there is a racial flaw in our government showing white supremecy? I ask this because I myself am bi-racial, and I want to know where I stand.

Another thing, Do you think that there should be a new racial category covering those who are of mixed descendant?

2006-12-31 17:57:31 · 4 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture Cultures & Groups Other - Cultures & Groups

4 answers

Race in America is not the same as it is in the rest of the world. In Europe the people are mostly white yet they discriminate among themselves. The French the Germans the English all have issues. Africa same thing its not so much being black now you become the wrong shade of black. Tutsi and Hutu. and several other tribes hate each other. Asians same thing.
Sorry but the whole race thing has gotten old to me. The whole 1/16 thing just tells me now people are going to just start filtering people. I myself like the military we are all some shade of green or wear it time to time:) No one is married to their own background at all and that is the norm.

2006-12-31 19:58:54 · answer #1 · answered by FIRE § 4 · 0 0

in the 2000 census, it was the first time that people could check more than one box when it came to your race, so that in itself created a new "category" for the united states. the 1/16th rule was to distinguish between the black and white people, like in the case of...haha i forgot the name... where this white man got kicked off a train because his grandfather was black, even though he was white. he fought it in court but that rule was applied and he lost. i dont think people really go by that rule anymore though.

2006-12-31 18:41:22 · answer #2 · answered by b2k4ever08 4 · 0 0

Supposing Black had been called white, what would they have done?

2006-12-31 18:48:25 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

people whose ancestors are from Europe and Australia

2006-12-31 18:49:25 · answer #4 · answered by WEEDG 3 · 0 1

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