2006-12-31
03:43:23
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4 answers
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asked by
K V
3
in
Science & Mathematics
➔ Mathematics
Jim, I think if you read the theorem you will find it reads something like 'if the observer has free will, then so does the particle observed', but the circumstances are 'framed' a special way by Conway...I'm not especially concerned about the nature of what a theorem is & I think that by phrasing the question as I have it's 'fairly' clear that what I am getting @ is that there is a supplementary phrasing of what Conway says...that's all...
It seems a question worth 'throwing around' for, if nothing else, 'entertainment' purposes...
2007-01-01
22:01:55 ·
update #1
Scyth, is the 'fallacy' the 'dragging (of) a philosophic notion like free will' onto the stage? Are you of the opinion that QP/QT is something that is not on the 'philosophic' fringes of science... surely such a field deserves engagement any which way a Mathematics/Physics literate person wishes? ...& I've sincere doubts about the value of your brief statement on the nature of free will...
2007-01-01
22:06:39 ·
update #2
Sago clarifies the 'correctness' of my question...
Thanks (please find 'some irony' attached) =)!
2007-01-01
22:08:43 ·
update #3
Scyth, Conway's theorem is pure mathematics... & I am a trained Mathematician... & I don't believe that one can/should cordon off Math's from questions such as this... I think if you read the theorem, then you will find that Conway has treated your concerns...
Finally, if nothing else, I go w/ Rota on Math's exposition.. you speak/write as if Mathematics is something that must have a character that Logic has shown is either impossible or only possible by abandonment of 'standard models' that are not representative of what people claim &/or act as if representing..
2007-01-03
02:59:41 ·
update #4