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12 answers

This depends upon the deed ascribing (giving) ownership to the parcel (land).

If the deed gives "mineral rights", it conveys ownership of the land to include the topsoil, and anything underground which may also be of value.

Local laws may prohibit/regulate the use of the land (zoning laws), which may preclude any serious digging/excavation projects in your backyard.

2006-12-31 01:34:20 · answer #1 · answered by chuck U 5 · 0 0

Depends on the local regulations as well as the way the deed is written. In US, most of the time you do not own the mineral rights under your land unless its explicitly stated.

2006-12-31 09:33:48 · answer #2 · answered by K2 2 · 1 0

in the us not really but in either japan or china i forget the subways have to follow the roads because when a person owns land it reaches to the center of ther earth.

2006-12-31 09:49:18 · answer #3 · answered by mask_187 1 · 0 0

Since middle Earth is full of hobbits and elves, they own the interior. We get the outer crust with the pretty flowers.

2006-12-31 10:14:50 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Legally, I believe maybe he does...I mean, if he finds oil on his land, he can drill as deep as he needs to get at that oil,
but personally, I have to say that I don't think any person can really "own" any piece of this earth.

2006-12-31 09:35:57 · answer #5 · answered by irishitalia 1 · 1 0

usually not! mineral rights are almost never sold with the land. best to hope that oil isn't found in your suburb, or gold or nickel or tin...

2006-12-31 11:35:00 · answer #6 · answered by habs_freak 3 · 0 0

the earth being spherical and its centre being atom sized, You probably wouldn't own much of it.

2006-12-31 14:44:27 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

no just to the middle crust the rest is the devils

2006-12-31 09:35:14 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Not really

2006-12-31 09:29:19 · answer #9 · answered by accessml 2 · 0 0

That is my understanding.

2006-12-31 11:34:10 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

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