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If it weren't for our prior generations "stealing" land from the natives, they would all be speaking spanish right now and sneaking across the boarder into Canada.

2006-12-31 01:06:17 · 14 answers · asked by Ransom 4 in Politics & Government Politics

14 answers

No,I am not sorry. But I bet a few indian tribes are. Though if we hadn't done it, Mexico or Canada would have, more likely both would have taken a share. Remember, those were different times, and expansionism was NOT a bad thing. Mexico to this day tries to claim parts of US soil as theirs.

2006-12-31 01:12:06 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

Obviously the Native Americans are sorry that Europeans ever set foot on this huge continent

But it was inevitable .....things were so bad in Europe , specifically England , 400 or 500 years ago because of poverty, religious persecution etc that people were willing to risk their lives to escape
When there was talk about new lands across the ocean , then this gave people hope of a better life
The Native Americans didn't stand a chance after that because the Europeans had superior weapons and weren't scared to use them , plus the fact that the Europeans didn't stop coming .
You think immigration by " illegal immigrants " is a bad thing today , well put youself in a Native American shoes or moccasins and see how they must have felt .....actually still are feeling
Their whole way of life was taken from them ....so when you ask who is sorry , there is only one answer
I am of European ancestry and I am not real proud of what " white man " has done to the earth .
We have robbed , raped , pillaged and plundered this earth all because of greed
Don't get me wrong , I'm guilty as well
Do we really need a bigger house than anyone ....or 2 cars ( some people actually need 2 )...a telephone in most of the rooms ....a tv in most of the rooms ... etc
GREED
Native Americans had it right the first time ....take what you need and no more

2006-12-31 08:34:20 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

And where do you think the Spanish language came from?? If the Europeans didn't come to North America, they also wouldn't have gone to South America and introduced the Spanish language. The only inhabitants then, would be the Indians.

And by the way, Canada and Mexico are both part of North America.

2006-12-31 01:43:21 · answer #3 · answered by TechTeachr2000 2 · 0 0

Um, to answer your original question...only the native Americans.

But, um, Spain is also in Europe, and Canada is in North America. If no Europeans came to North America...the native Americans would all be speaking Chinese...and I'm not sure where the immigration boundaries would be.

2006-12-31 01:11:07 · answer #4 · answered by David G 5 · 2 0

And the Spanish speaking emigrants took the land from whom? And the Canadians took the land from whom?
Personally, I'm glad the Europeans came to North America.


PAUL IS 100% CORRECT. We can't undo history, but we can change modern times.

2006-12-31 01:08:51 · answer #5 · answered by Don Quixote 2 · 2 0

I am NOT sorry. The "natives" were also migrants from
Mongolia and from what is now the West Indies and South America and the first "Europeans" were the Vikings
from Norway and Finland and then from Great Britain.

2006-12-31 01:18:52 · answer #6 · answered by Vagabond5879 7 · 0 0

that's not true. The Spainards are European too. They invaded Central America. If no Europeans came to the Americas, there would be a vast majority of Native Americans.

2006-12-31 01:12:09 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 2 0

the clarification there are large blended populations in Spanish speaking international places, is the Spanish have been Roman Catholics. It became a "sin" to cohabitate with out being married. as a consequence the Spanish married the indigenous women human beings and maintained their families. the comparable is real of the French who even have been Roman Catholics. it is why there's a large Mestizo inhabitants in Spanish speaking international places and a large Metis inhabitants interior the French factors alongside with in Canada. on the different hand the English weren't Roman Catholics and it became no longer a sin to cohabitate. in certainty it became difficulty-loose prepare for the English to have a "mistress" in "addition to" or "instead of" a spouse. different than in some circumstances, as quickly as English women human beings began to to migrate to the Americas, the English adult adult males abandon their indigenous families, and married an English woman. The indigenous woman then the two back to her family participants's tribe or to a blended race settlement. blended race populations generally did no longer stay with the indigenous tribes (for financial motives) and that they've been refrained from with the aid of the White inhabitants so as that they frequently formed their on society and settlements. The English in basic terms took indigenous women human beings as different halves for a quick quantity of time in the past English women human beings began to to migrate to the Americas. very few intermarriages occurred after that and that's the clarification there is no definable English-Indigenous inhabitants. .

2016-11-25 02:40:59 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

The native population that inhabited this land for 10,000 years .
They had no mass deaths or plagues . It is the white mans curse for disobeying God and not living in peace .

2006-12-31 01:22:37 · answer #9 · answered by -----JAFO---- 4 · 0 0

Actually the Spanish immigrated here too. So the language would be of what ever Indian tribe you belonged to.

2006-12-31 01:09:17 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 2 0

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