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2006-12-29 15:13:18 · 11 answers · asked by The Editor 2 in Social Science Economics

11 answers

Edward M is right. What the u.s. poverty level means is that anyone who is living below it cannot afford the basic necessities of life w/in the u.s. We have a high standard of living which is why someone in a 3rd world country wld be living in the lap of luxury if their welfare benefits were what ours are.

In Mich there are individuals receiving ssi (which is a welfare program via Social Security Admin) who are better off than many who work. Consider that they have to pay only 1/4 of their rent pmt, all medical expenses (dr, hosp, clinics, dental, eye) are covered with no premium pmts, they have food stamps and they don't have to pay income taxes. If they don't smoke they're not hurting financially. At some point, a low wage earner would be ahead of the game but they'd have to work quite awhile to do better than if they weren't working. If you've read this far, bless you, I got long-winded didn't I?

2006-12-29 15:34:07 · answer #1 · answered by Judith 6 · 0 1

The official level of poverty in a country depends on the definition used and what is counted as income. The US definitions is 3 times the income need to provide a nutritionally adequate diet. However the use of saving, food stamps, public housing etc is not included. The lowest 20% has expenditures of twice their income. In the UK it is half the median income, and they have national health care. Cross country comparisons have little meaning, however tracking this number in time for a country is a useful statistic for guiding policy and expected welfare expenditures.

2006-12-30 06:05:39 · answer #2 · answered by meg 7 · 0 1

Because the UN describes poverty as relative.

The median poor person in the US is much better off than the middle class in most nations.

2006-12-29 15:50:04 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

detrimental human beings don't have little ones they can't take care of to pay for to feed. in addition they have not have been given any acceptable to call for that the socially and sexually to blame taxpayer feed them the two. Poverty is likewise a considerable result for women who get pregnant out of wedlock. Divorce additionally dumps many females individuals and little ones into poverty. prepare start administration, or in simple terms undeniable don't have intercourse (in the journey that your faith prohibits synthetic start administration).

2016-10-28 16:47:38 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Because poverty is defined as earning less than half the median income, and the US has a VERY high median income compared to other nations.

2006-12-29 15:19:07 · answer #5 · answered by Edward M 2 · 2 1

What planet are you from. The poorest person in the USA lives better and has more stuff than someone living in a turd world country say like Chad or Somali. Listening to Hugo Chavez?

2006-12-29 15:23:40 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 1 1

the gap between rich & poor increases because of the misdistribution of income amoung the people. while, majority of the national product will be consumed less minority of fortunate and leaving the rest almost nothing. the tickle down theory is not properly active here.

2006-12-29 17:32:06 · answer #7 · answered by Kaushal 2 · 0 0

Because people are free to make their own decisions. If they decide to not take education seriously, produce children they cannot afford to feed and blame all their problems on others, then they suffer the consequences.
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2006-12-29 16:18:21 · answer #8 · answered by Zak 5 · 0 0

Because Brad Pitt and Angelina Jolie Pitt (who did NOT steal him away from Jennifer Aniston...right) spend all their money in Africa.

2006-12-29 15:22:26 · answer #9 · answered by lilygateau 4 · 1 0

the government wants to keep you poor so they can control you

2006-12-29 15:19:04 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

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