The F word did not originate as an acronym. It crept, fully formed, into the English language from Dutch or Low German around the 15th century (it's impossible to say precisely when because so little documentary evidence exists, probably due to the fact that the word was so taboo throughout its early history that people were afraid to write it down). The American Heritage Dictionary says its first known occurrence in English literature was in the satirical poem "Flen, Flyss" (c.1500), where it was not only disguised as a Latin word but encrypted — gxddbov — which has been deciphered as fuccant, pseudo-Latin for "they f***."
According to Sheidlower, the earliest claims in print of supposed acronymic origins for the F-word appeared during the 1960s. An underground newspaper called the East Village Other published this version in 1967:
It's not commonly known that the f-word originated as a medical diagnostic notation on the documests of soldiers in the British Imperial Army. When a soldier reported sick and was found to have V.D., the abbreviation F.*.*.k. was stamped on his documents. It was short for "Found Under Carnal Knowledge."
Two more variants appeared in a letter published in Playboy magazine in 1970:
Some people claim that the f-word originated in the 15th Century, when a married couple needed permission from the king to procreate. Hence, Fornication Under Consent of the King. I maintain that it's an acronym of a law term used in the 1500s that referred to rape as Forced Unnatural Carnal Knowledge."
Undoubtedly the most famous use of this etymological travesty was as the title of the 1991 Van Halen album, "For Unlawful Carnal Knowledge."
2006-12-29 02:36:52
·
answer #1
·
answered by Mash 2
·
0⤊
0⤋
Dutch or Low German around the 15th century (it's impossible to say precisely when because so little documentary evidence exists, probably due to the fact that the word was so taboo throughout its early history that people were afraid to write it down). The American Heritage Dictionary says its first known occurrence in English literature was in the satirical poem "Flen, Flyss" (c.1500), where it was not only disguised as a Latin word but encrypted — gxddbov — which has been deciphered as fuccant
ALL other explainations are considered "old wives tales" such as the For Unlaw Carnal Knowledge.
Generally American Army Doctors used the term NSU (Non-Specific Urethritis) in the 1960s.
2006-12-29 02:33:40
·
answer #2
·
answered by Anonymous
·
0⤊
0⤋
**** is an English word which, when used literally as a verb, means "to engage in sexual intercourse". It is generally considered to be an offensive profanity.
It is unclear whether the word has always been considered vulgar, and if not, when it first started to be considered vulgar. Some evidence indicates that in some English-speaking locales it was considered acceptable as late as the 17th century meaning "to strike" or "to penetrate."[1] Other evidence indicates that it may have become vulgar as early as the 16th century in England, although neither set of evidence is inherently contradictory to the other, since many words have multiple connotations.
**** is used not only as a verb (transitive and intransitive), but also as a noun, interjection, and, occasionally, as an expletive infix.
2006-12-29 02:27:01
·
answer #3
·
answered by Great Dane 4
·
2⤊
0⤋
some believe these
The 'acronym' is variously rendered as:
Fornication Under Consent of the King
Fornication Under Charles the King
Fornication Under Crown of the King
Fornication under Christ, King
Forbidden Under Charter of the King (a sign posted on brothels closed by the Crown)
For Unlawful Carnal Knowledge
Forced Unlawful Carnal Knowledge
File Under Carnal Knowledge (how Scotland Yard marked rape files).
2006-12-29 02:38:39
·
answer #4
·
answered by beaver_la_diva 3
·
0⤊
0⤋
what we do know is that it first emerged as a commonly used word in early renaissance england - typically a slang term for premarital or extramarital intercourse. no one really knows if it's an acronym or just a vulgar one syllable word. the tale about needing consent from the king is just a tale, since any edict issued by a king would have been signed or officially sealed in latin (rex, not king), and a king would not have bothered applying an official signatory to something as common and widespread as sex
2006-12-29 02:42:59
·
answer #5
·
answered by Super G 5
·
0⤊
0⤋
there is an urban legend that states, that back in the day with all of the kings and queens, one had to have the "permission" of the king to fornicate...so therefore we have Fornication Under the Consent of the King.....most sources say that there is not really a true origin of the word.
2006-12-29 02:35:08
·
answer #6
·
answered by CO#1 3
·
1⤊
0⤋
The best guess that I have seen is that "f**k" comes from the Middle English fucken, to strike, move quickly, penetrate, from the German ficken, meaning approximately the same thing. A related word may be the Middle Dutch fokken, to strike, copulate with. This answer is courtesy of the website below where Cecil discusses further.
2006-12-29 02:40:06
·
answer #7
·
answered by inaru816 3
·
1⤊
0⤋
This is what I understand.
Many many years ago, the ruling King banned all sex without his permission. In order for anyone to have sex (fornication) the needed a written slip from the king saying it was ok. This came to be known as Fornication Under Consenting King.
2006-12-29 02:34:18
·
answer #8
·
answered by D.C 4
·
0⤊
0⤋
I think it is from Roman times. It means "to plant".
I also heard it means "Fornicate under consent of King" since the place the word came from, you needed the king's permission to have children
2006-12-29 02:28:06
·
answer #9
·
answered by crazedvole 2
·
0⤊
0⤋
In ancient England a person could not have sex unless you had consent of the King (unless you were in the Royal Family). When anyone wanted to have a baby, they got consent of the King, the King gave them a placard that they hung on their door while they were having sex. The placard had F.*.*.*. (Fornication Under Consent of the King) on it. Now you know where that came from.
2006-12-29 02:43:07
·
answer #10
·
answered by Grapy 2
·
0⤊
1⤋