There is a gay couple who have been together for two years. Although a rocky relationship, they decided last year that one of them would buy a house for both of them to live in together. The owner receives monthly compensation from his partner for living expenses. The owner now is thinking about ending their relationship, but his partner says that since the house is partially his that they need to sell the house before that happens, because they both own the house. So the question is, do they both have entitlements to the house since it was purchased with the intent of housing the both of them, and what things should they split up if and when they do break up?
2006-12-29 02:19:44 · 15 answers · asked by mulderlx 2 in Society & Culture ➔ Cultures & Groups ➔ Lesbian, Gay, Bisexual, and Transgender
If the one who didn't buy the house isn't helping with mortgage payments, and only helping with utilitys, then he has no right to the proceeds of the house, he's just been paying for living there, like rent. You don't get rent back when you leave a place. There may be many other factors in this which you haven't listed. If they wish to remain freinds, I suggest a mediator to help them figure out if anyone owes any money to the other.
2006-12-29 02:24:24 · answer #1 · answered by Jessy 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The person who's name is on the mortgage and title is the owner of the house. The other person was renting. The person who's name is on the mortgage assumed 100% of the risk and could not just walk away at any time like the other person even though the intent was to house both of them. Property division will be much more difficult without proof of who purchased each item. Each person is entitled to that personal property that they brought into the relationship. Their mutual property, or that which was accumulated jointly is the sticky part. If anything was jointly purchased that went towards the upkeep of the property should go with the person who retained the real estate and the owner of the real estate should reimburse the other party a fair, but depreciated amount.
2006-12-29 02:30:52 · answer #2 · answered by JayJay 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Normally if both parties of the couple make payments on a contract like a mortgage, the property is mutual according to many different court decisions on that subject. Any and all property that has had shared payments should be sold before the couple can split up without that possible legal hassle hanging around even after the relationship is ended.
2006-12-29 03:34:55 · answer #3 · answered by Keith R 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Legally the house belongs to the partner whose name is on the deed. The partner whose name is not on the deed is not entitled to proceeds of the house if sold. If the couple bought furniture together and other items for the house that property can be divided among them or sold and the profits shared between them.
2006-12-29 02:26:22 · answer #4 · answered by Ozzie B. 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
IT REALLY DEPENDS:IF ONLY ONE OF THEM IS THE OWNER ON PAPER:HE CAN EVICT THE OTHER TROUGH NOTIFIED MAIL:MEANING ESTABLISHING A DATE TO BE MOVED OUT OF THE HOUSE.,USUALLY A THREE MONTH'S PERIOD.
SELLING THE HOUSE IS NOT NEEDED.
ANY MONEY PUT UP BY THE TWO OF THEM TO FIX THINGS UP MUST BE REFUNDED.THINGS BOUGHT TOGETHER AS THEY MAYBE HAD A JOINED BANK ACCOUNT SHOULD ALSO BE SPLIT UP.
BUT IN NO WAY IS THE BUYER OF THE HOUSE OBLIGATED TO SELL IT:IT HAPPENED TO ME TOO:I KNOW WHAT I AM TALKING ABOUT.
GREETINGS:ROB.
IM ME IF NECESSARY.
2006-12-29 02:32:53 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
So far JayJay has the most logical answer. Now if same sex marriage were legal alot of situations like this would be predetermined by state law. And the moral of the story is: ALWAYS GET A PRE-NUP!!!!!!
2006-12-29 02:48:08 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Should see a lawyer. It sounds like the second one was in the position of being a renter, and paying for his upkeep, but there was no agreement that he partially owned it.
2006-12-29 02:22:31 · answer #7 · answered by JOYCE M 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
you're in an extremely complicated place and that i think of the main right this is OCD. those with OCD could have issue in changing a development, they do no longer choose for to rock the boat. without the OCD i could be suggesting pass on, as you have invested a brilliant volume for little return and the behaviour of your buddy is exceptionally terrible. even nonetheless, the OCD brings so lots greater into concentration. i've got self assurance that what you ought to to is to construct new forms of behaviour with this lady that then will substitute into favourite for her and greater healthful into her existence. it ought to be greater beneficial than you're inquiring for, yet i could advise going together with her to a counsellor, so as which you will collectively build as much as a greater courting, yet interior of secure obstacles. She could have already got a counsellor, and if so you ought to speak to her approximately attending some classes together with her. on the different hand, if the OCD won't be the issue then she's in simple terms no longer attracted to committing to you, in all possibility for an analogous reason that each and every person persons have - worry. you ought to speak to her in a non-confrontational way and ask her what especially she needs out of your courting, what especially scares her and what sacrifices she is keen to make to allow the courting to bossom. If she's no longer keen to place something in, then i could propose strolling away. once you're round her, you won't be able to pass on. Unrequited love is very difficult to recover from whilst the object of choose is around. i'm hoping all of it works out, regardless of you pick for to do.
2016-10-06 04:07:34 · answer #8 · answered by ? 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
This is a legal question that needs to be checked with the laws of your state
2006-12-29 02:53:36 · answer #9 · answered by instructor1g 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Legal marriages would solve this. Stuff like this is happening all the time.
2006-12-29 03:15:06 · answer #10 · answered by Yikes! 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋