English Deutsch Français Italiano Español Português 繁體中文 Bahasa Indonesia Tiếng Việt ภาษาไทย
All categories

15 answers

There wasn't an "India" until the middle of the 19th century, when most of the territory we call India today was joined as a colony under British rule. The earlier "Indias" were empires that had fallen apart before the Muslim conquests.

Islam spread rapidly in Asia, Africa, and Europe from the 7th through the 11th centuries. In the Arabian Peninsula and south-west Asia (Syria, Iran, etc.), North Africa and Spain, Islam spread initially by conquest, and quite rapidly (all those areas were conquered by the Caliphate in the 7th century).

In south and southeast Asia, Islam spread more by conversion than by conquest, from the 8th to the 11th centuries. Muslim armies did not penetrate the defenses of a strong Indian state as much as many Indians chose the egalitarian precepts of Islam over the caste (varna) system of Hindu India. (This is partly the reason for the apeal of Buddhism in India as well, though Buddhism is practiced more in central and east Asia than in south Asia today.)

The conquest of the Punjab region of India in the 8th century came after many decades of commercial contact with and settlement of Arab Muslims in Punjab, along with extensive cultural exchanges and even conversions by Hindu Punjabis to Islam, and it occurred during the fragmentation of the Punjabi kingdom after the death of its king, Harsha, in the late 7th century.

There was a Muslim conquest of parts of south Asia much later, under the Mongols. The Mongols were not Muslims initially, but in places like India, to consolidate power, they adopted Islam, and in turn spread it. The Mongol empire didn't last very long, but Islam did spread in south Asia under Mongol rule.

2006-12-29 06:08:51 · answer #1 · answered by umlando 4 · 0 0

The Rise of the Islamic Caliphates occurred from 600~1200 C.E.

Most of the ground they conquered religiously happened during that time both by sword and word of mouth. The Muslims (known originally as 'Musselmen') spread out as far as the Philippine Islands by the end of the 1st millenium. The great navigator Magellan is killed by Moro tribesmen in the Philippines after he discovers the passage around the tip of S. America.

India was not 'conquered by Islam, but much of the landmass became Muslim during this time frame. The Hindi religous belief system is one of cooperation and as long as the Ruling castes were not bothered, nothing was ever done. So the Islamic belief flourished there without really changing anything in India.

Lord Mountbatten presided over the eventual breakup of India in 1948 and followed a UN mandate that India be broken up by religious faction. The only mistake Mountbatten made was to help a personal friend of his circumvent the mandate. The friend was the Raj of the Kashmir region, which was 95% Muslim and should have been incorporated into Pakistan. Both India and Pakistan continue to fight over that region to this day.

2006-12-29 03:05:33 · answer #2 · answered by wolf560 5 · 0 0

Because Islam is like a cancer spreading on this planet.

In EVERY country the disease is growing, look at the latest war in Somalia v Ethiopia. What caused it? Muslim´s trying to take over Somalia and after that influence the whole area, good job the Ethiopians saw the danger and acted.

Look at Kosovo or the whole of Yugoslavia, it used to be all Christian, but the Muslims produced and thier populaiton grew and now Kosovo is a Muslim state, Albania experienced the same infection.

YOUR NEXT UNLESS YOU WAKE UP WEST:!!

2006-12-29 02:06:57 · answer #3 · answered by Ganymede 3 · 0 3

india wasn't conquered by muslims recently. this happened almost 500-600 years ago during the Mogul empire. india wasn't rich then, but now, it sure is!

2006-12-29 03:28:55 · answer #4 · answered by mtja57 3 · 0 0

Ghazwa e Hind won't happen taken with no attention the flaws stay as of immediately. no longer in basic terms India, take any land contained in the international, anyplace there is oppression, in basic terms Muslims improve against such attrocities of rulers and governments. Muslims do no longer care in the event that they're branded terrorists or greater effective than that. the objective of the Muslim community is to look for justice, do justice and die for justice. anyplace there is injustice, Ghazwa e Muslim will take place. If the quoted Hadith is taken as genuine, then that would desire to take place in basic terms on the circumstances the place India could behave greater effective than a villain to the humanity or to the Muslims. earlier than the Mughals, the attrocities and genecedes committed by Arayna over Dravidians develop into the rationalization for inviting Mughals into India to look after subjugated and humiliated non-Muslims with caste equipment. because of this, Mughals governed India giving non violent residing and admire to all the voters for 800 years. The settle on of Muslims would desire to be witnessed from Palestinians who stand with braveness with a chew of rock in hand, against the reliable tanks of Israel, and witness from Taliban who would desire to no longer be defeated even after eleven years of bombing overheads, by 36 international places Allied forces below the supervion of the so-noted as great ability. as long as Muslims are no longer kindled and not provocated, no Ghazwa is contained in the place. You tease the Muslim community, blaspheme their Prophet (peace be upon him) desecrate Al-Qur'aan and anticipate peace contained in the international ? which will in no way take place.

2016-12-18 21:08:40 · answer #5 · answered by ? 4 · 0 0

I don't think being rich or poor has anything to do with being a Muslim. Most of the richest people in the world are Muslims...the kings, sheiks, sultans, etc. of the OPEC countries, for example.

2006-12-29 02:11:12 · answer #6 · answered by 4999_Basque 6 · 2 0

Wow are you out of touch. Muslims are not rich too? Conquered? More like assimilated.

2006-12-29 03:04:12 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

This question is kind of like asking, "How far could you walk if your car had a full tank of gas?" or "If you had a cup of chocolate, what is your favorite show on television?" It doesn't make any sense, because there is no causation between the wealth of a nation and the spreading of religious beliefs. This question is illogical.

2006-12-29 02:46:47 · answer #8 · answered by Mr. Taco 7 · 1 1

Muslim is a religion, not a financial status.

2006-12-29 02:03:27 · answer #9 · answered by CH 2 · 1 0

it was an agreement between britishers india and pakistan dat india would pay to pakistan as compensation.

2006-12-29 02:09:17 · answer #10 · answered by ~*~*~* sAsHa~*~*~* 1 · 0 1

fedest.com, questions and answers